Applying Fermats Little Theorem to show $a^p equiv_p b^p $ implies $a equiv_p b $

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Let $p$ be a prime number and $a$,$b$ be two positive integers.



Show that
beginequation
a^p equiv_p b^p implies a equiv_p b
endequation



I'm thinking the best way to show this relationship is using Fermat's Little Theorem two times?
Maybe this can be done simply using the properties of Modular arithmetics?



FLT states that if $p$ is a prime number, then for any integer $a$, the number $a^p-a$ is an integer multiple of $p$.
Expressed :



$a^p equiv_p a$



I'm not sure how to apply FLT in this case, any help would be much appreciated!







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    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    Let $p$ be a prime number and $a$,$b$ be two positive integers.



    Show that
    beginequation
    a^p equiv_p b^p implies a equiv_p b
    endequation



    I'm thinking the best way to show this relationship is using Fermat's Little Theorem two times?
    Maybe this can be done simply using the properties of Modular arithmetics?



    FLT states that if $p$ is a prime number, then for any integer $a$, the number $a^p-a$ is an integer multiple of $p$.
    Expressed :



    $a^p equiv_p a$



    I'm not sure how to apply FLT in this case, any help would be much appreciated!







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      Let $p$ be a prime number and $a$,$b$ be two positive integers.



      Show that
      beginequation
      a^p equiv_p b^p implies a equiv_p b
      endequation



      I'm thinking the best way to show this relationship is using Fermat's Little Theorem two times?
      Maybe this can be done simply using the properties of Modular arithmetics?



      FLT states that if $p$ is a prime number, then for any integer $a$, the number $a^p-a$ is an integer multiple of $p$.
      Expressed :



      $a^p equiv_p a$



      I'm not sure how to apply FLT in this case, any help would be much appreciated!







      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $p$ be a prime number and $a$,$b$ be two positive integers.



      Show that
      beginequation
      a^p equiv_p b^p implies a equiv_p b
      endequation



      I'm thinking the best way to show this relationship is using Fermat's Little Theorem two times?
      Maybe this can be done simply using the properties of Modular arithmetics?



      FLT states that if $p$ is a prime number, then for any integer $a$, the number $a^p-a$ is an integer multiple of $p$.
      Expressed :



      $a^p equiv_p a$



      I'm not sure how to apply FLT in this case, any help would be much appreciated!









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 31 at 21:29









      amWhy

      189k25219431




      189k25219431









      asked Jul 31 at 21:20









      einar

      1238




      1238




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          Observe that, any prime $p|binompr$ for $rin 1,2,cdots ,p-1$. Hence, we have $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-binomp1a^p-1cdot b+cdots +binompp-1acdot b^p-1-b^p equiv_p a^p-b^p$$
          For $p=2$, you need some effort - $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Now as you have $a^pequiv_p b^p$, you get $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-b^pequiv_p 0$$ or, $aequiv_p b$.






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 1




            Why do you need $p$ to be odd with your method?
            – Arnaud Mortier
            Jul 31 at 21:36






          • 1




            Ok, $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Thanks!
            – tarit goswami
            Jul 31 at 21:38










          • You can also prove Fermat's little theorem this way
            – Rumpelstiltskin
            Jul 31 at 21:42

















          up vote
          3
          down vote













          Note that
          $$
          aequiv_pa^pequiv_p b^pequiv_p b
          $$
          where the outer equalities are consequences of Fermat's Little Theorem.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Your idea (applying FLT twice) is fine:$$aequiv_pa^pequiv_pb^pequiv b.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes








              3 Answers
              3






              active

              oldest

              votes









              active

              oldest

              votes






              active

              oldest

              votes








              up vote
              4
              down vote



              accepted










              Observe that, any prime $p|binompr$ for $rin 1,2,cdots ,p-1$. Hence, we have $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-binomp1a^p-1cdot b+cdots +binompp-1acdot b^p-1-b^p equiv_p a^p-b^p$$
              For $p=2$, you need some effort - $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Now as you have $a^pequiv_p b^p$, you get $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-b^pequiv_p 0$$ or, $aequiv_p b$.






              share|cite|improve this answer



















              • 1




                Why do you need $p$ to be odd with your method?
                – Arnaud Mortier
                Jul 31 at 21:36






              • 1




                Ok, $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Thanks!
                – tarit goswami
                Jul 31 at 21:38










              • You can also prove Fermat's little theorem this way
                – Rumpelstiltskin
                Jul 31 at 21:42














              up vote
              4
              down vote



              accepted










              Observe that, any prime $p|binompr$ for $rin 1,2,cdots ,p-1$. Hence, we have $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-binomp1a^p-1cdot b+cdots +binompp-1acdot b^p-1-b^p equiv_p a^p-b^p$$
              For $p=2$, you need some effort - $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Now as you have $a^pequiv_p b^p$, you get $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-b^pequiv_p 0$$ or, $aequiv_p b$.






              share|cite|improve this answer



















              • 1




                Why do you need $p$ to be odd with your method?
                – Arnaud Mortier
                Jul 31 at 21:36






              • 1




                Ok, $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Thanks!
                – tarit goswami
                Jul 31 at 21:38










              • You can also prove Fermat's little theorem this way
                – Rumpelstiltskin
                Jul 31 at 21:42












              up vote
              4
              down vote



              accepted







              up vote
              4
              down vote



              accepted






              Observe that, any prime $p|binompr$ for $rin 1,2,cdots ,p-1$. Hence, we have $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-binomp1a^p-1cdot b+cdots +binompp-1acdot b^p-1-b^p equiv_p a^p-b^p$$
              For $p=2$, you need some effort - $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Now as you have $a^pequiv_p b^p$, you get $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-b^pequiv_p 0$$ or, $aequiv_p b$.






              share|cite|improve this answer















              Observe that, any prime $p|binompr$ for $rin 1,2,cdots ,p-1$. Hence, we have $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-binomp1a^p-1cdot b+cdots +binompp-1acdot b^p-1-b^p equiv_p a^p-b^p$$
              For $p=2$, you need some effort - $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Now as you have $a^pequiv_p b^p$, you get $$(a-b)^pequiv_p a^p-b^pequiv_p 0$$ or, $aequiv_p b$.







              share|cite|improve this answer















              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer








              edited Jul 31 at 21:40


























              answered Jul 31 at 21:34









              tarit goswami

              987




              987







              • 1




                Why do you need $p$ to be odd with your method?
                – Arnaud Mortier
                Jul 31 at 21:36






              • 1




                Ok, $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Thanks!
                – tarit goswami
                Jul 31 at 21:38










              • You can also prove Fermat's little theorem this way
                – Rumpelstiltskin
                Jul 31 at 21:42












              • 1




                Why do you need $p$ to be odd with your method?
                – Arnaud Mortier
                Jul 31 at 21:36






              • 1




                Ok, $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Thanks!
                – tarit goswami
                Jul 31 at 21:38










              • You can also prove Fermat's little theorem this way
                – Rumpelstiltskin
                Jul 31 at 21:42







              1




              1




              Why do you need $p$ to be odd with your method?
              – Arnaud Mortier
              Jul 31 at 21:36




              Why do you need $p$ to be odd with your method?
              – Arnaud Mortier
              Jul 31 at 21:36




              1




              1




              Ok, $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Thanks!
              – tarit goswami
              Jul 31 at 21:38




              Ok, $(a-b)^2equiv_2 a^2+b^2equiv_2 a^2-b^2$. Thanks!
              – tarit goswami
              Jul 31 at 21:38












              You can also prove Fermat's little theorem this way
              – Rumpelstiltskin
              Jul 31 at 21:42




              You can also prove Fermat's little theorem this way
              – Rumpelstiltskin
              Jul 31 at 21:42










              up vote
              3
              down vote













              Note that
              $$
              aequiv_pa^pequiv_p b^pequiv_p b
              $$
              where the outer equalities are consequences of Fermat's Little Theorem.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                3
                down vote













                Note that
                $$
                aequiv_pa^pequiv_p b^pequiv_p b
                $$
                where the outer equalities are consequences of Fermat's Little Theorem.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  3
                  down vote









                  Note that
                  $$
                  aequiv_pa^pequiv_p b^pequiv_p b
                  $$
                  where the outer equalities are consequences of Fermat's Little Theorem.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  Note that
                  $$
                  aequiv_pa^pequiv_p b^pequiv_p b
                  $$
                  where the outer equalities are consequences of Fermat's Little Theorem.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 31 at 21:22









                  Foobaz John

                  18k41245




                  18k41245




















                      up vote
                      2
                      down vote













                      Your idea (applying FLT twice) is fine:$$aequiv_pa^pequiv_pb^pequiv b.$$






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        2
                        down vote













                        Your idea (applying FLT twice) is fine:$$aequiv_pa^pequiv_pb^pequiv b.$$






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          2
                          down vote









                          Your idea (applying FLT twice) is fine:$$aequiv_pa^pequiv_pb^pequiv b.$$






                          share|cite|improve this answer













                          Your idea (applying FLT twice) is fine:$$aequiv_pa^pequiv_pb^pequiv b.$$







                          share|cite|improve this answer













                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          answered Jul 31 at 21:22









                          José Carlos Santos

                          112k1696172




                          112k1696172






















                               

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