Cumulative distribution function for geometric random variable

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For geometric random variable $f(k)=(1-p)^k-1p$.



Then $$F(k) = P(Xleq x)= 1-P(x>k) = 1 - sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1 = 1 - (1-p)^k sum_i=1^ infty p(1-p)^i-1= 1 - (1-p)^k$$



I would appriciate a breakdown of these steps. Especially why do we take $1-P(x>k)$ and what operations are preformed on the summation sign?
Stating the obvious is very welcone, my mathematical background is quite limited.







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    up vote
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    down vote

    favorite












    For geometric random variable $f(k)=(1-p)^k-1p$.



    Then $$F(k) = P(Xleq x)= 1-P(x>k) = 1 - sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1 = 1 - (1-p)^k sum_i=1^ infty p(1-p)^i-1= 1 - (1-p)^k$$



    I would appriciate a breakdown of these steps. Especially why do we take $1-P(x>k)$ and what operations are preformed on the summation sign?
    Stating the obvious is very welcone, my mathematical background is quite limited.







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      For geometric random variable $f(k)=(1-p)^k-1p$.



      Then $$F(k) = P(Xleq x)= 1-P(x>k) = 1 - sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1 = 1 - (1-p)^k sum_i=1^ infty p(1-p)^i-1= 1 - (1-p)^k$$



      I would appriciate a breakdown of these steps. Especially why do we take $1-P(x>k)$ and what operations are preformed on the summation sign?
      Stating the obvious is very welcone, my mathematical background is quite limited.







      share|cite|improve this question













      For geometric random variable $f(k)=(1-p)^k-1p$.



      Then $$F(k) = P(Xleq x)= 1-P(x>k) = 1 - sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1 = 1 - (1-p)^k sum_i=1^ infty p(1-p)^i-1= 1 - (1-p)^k$$



      I would appriciate a breakdown of these steps. Especially why do we take $1-P(x>k)$ and what operations are preformed on the summation sign?
      Stating the obvious is very welcone, my mathematical background is quite limited.









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      edited Aug 1 at 7:40
























      asked Jul 31 at 14:53









      user1607

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          The main idea is using the geometric series $$sum_i=0^inftya , r^i = fraca1-r$$
          $P(X leq k)$ is a finite sum, while $P(X>k)$ is an infinite series, specifically a geometric series. So to utilize the geometric series expression, instead of looking at $P(X leq k)$ one looks at the equivalent $1-P(X>k)$.



          Then $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$ simplifies as done in your expression. I personally find it easier to look at the first few terms written out:



          beginalignsum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1
          &= p(1-p)^k + p(1-p)^k+1 + p(1-p)^k+2 + dots \
          &= p(1-p)^k left1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldotsright\
          &= p(1-p)^k frac11-(1-p) = (1-p)^kendalign




          Added to answer the questions in the comments:



          $P(X>k)$ is the probability of $X$ taking values greater than $k$ so:



          beginalign
          P(X>k) & = P(X=k+1)+P(X=k+2)+P(X=k+3)+dots \
          & = p(1-p)^k+1-1 + p(1-p)^k+2-1+ p(1-p)^k+3-1+dots
          endalign



          This is the same as writing $sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$.



          $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldots$ is the geometric series with $a=1$ and $r=1-p$. Plugging them in the formula $fraca1-r$ to get $frac11-(1-p)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Tnanks for explanation. Could you maybe also break down how to utilize the geometri series to get to $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1$ ?
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 9:53











          • Also how is $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+...=frac11-(1-p)$? I appologize if my questions are elementary, by mathematical background is not great.
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 10:03











          • You are welcome. Please see the added explanations.
            – Just_to_Answer
            Aug 1 at 21:32










          Your Answer




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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          The main idea is using the geometric series $$sum_i=0^inftya , r^i = fraca1-r$$
          $P(X leq k)$ is a finite sum, while $P(X>k)$ is an infinite series, specifically a geometric series. So to utilize the geometric series expression, instead of looking at $P(X leq k)$ one looks at the equivalent $1-P(X>k)$.



          Then $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$ simplifies as done in your expression. I personally find it easier to look at the first few terms written out:



          beginalignsum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1
          &= p(1-p)^k + p(1-p)^k+1 + p(1-p)^k+2 + dots \
          &= p(1-p)^k left1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldotsright\
          &= p(1-p)^k frac11-(1-p) = (1-p)^kendalign




          Added to answer the questions in the comments:



          $P(X>k)$ is the probability of $X$ taking values greater than $k$ so:



          beginalign
          P(X>k) & = P(X=k+1)+P(X=k+2)+P(X=k+3)+dots \
          & = p(1-p)^k+1-1 + p(1-p)^k+2-1+ p(1-p)^k+3-1+dots
          endalign



          This is the same as writing $sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$.



          $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldots$ is the geometric series with $a=1$ and $r=1-p$. Plugging them in the formula $fraca1-r$ to get $frac11-(1-p)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Tnanks for explanation. Could you maybe also break down how to utilize the geometri series to get to $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1$ ?
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 9:53











          • Also how is $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+...=frac11-(1-p)$? I appologize if my questions are elementary, by mathematical background is not great.
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 10:03











          • You are welcome. Please see the added explanations.
            – Just_to_Answer
            Aug 1 at 21:32














          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          The main idea is using the geometric series $$sum_i=0^inftya , r^i = fraca1-r$$
          $P(X leq k)$ is a finite sum, while $P(X>k)$ is an infinite series, specifically a geometric series. So to utilize the geometric series expression, instead of looking at $P(X leq k)$ one looks at the equivalent $1-P(X>k)$.



          Then $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$ simplifies as done in your expression. I personally find it easier to look at the first few terms written out:



          beginalignsum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1
          &= p(1-p)^k + p(1-p)^k+1 + p(1-p)^k+2 + dots \
          &= p(1-p)^k left1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldotsright\
          &= p(1-p)^k frac11-(1-p) = (1-p)^kendalign




          Added to answer the questions in the comments:



          $P(X>k)$ is the probability of $X$ taking values greater than $k$ so:



          beginalign
          P(X>k) & = P(X=k+1)+P(X=k+2)+P(X=k+3)+dots \
          & = p(1-p)^k+1-1 + p(1-p)^k+2-1+ p(1-p)^k+3-1+dots
          endalign



          This is the same as writing $sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$.



          $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldots$ is the geometric series with $a=1$ and $r=1-p$. Plugging them in the formula $fraca1-r$ to get $frac11-(1-p)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Tnanks for explanation. Could you maybe also break down how to utilize the geometri series to get to $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1$ ?
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 9:53











          • Also how is $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+...=frac11-(1-p)$? I appologize if my questions are elementary, by mathematical background is not great.
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 10:03











          • You are welcome. Please see the added explanations.
            – Just_to_Answer
            Aug 1 at 21:32












          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          The main idea is using the geometric series $$sum_i=0^inftya , r^i = fraca1-r$$
          $P(X leq k)$ is a finite sum, while $P(X>k)$ is an infinite series, specifically a geometric series. So to utilize the geometric series expression, instead of looking at $P(X leq k)$ one looks at the equivalent $1-P(X>k)$.



          Then $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$ simplifies as done in your expression. I personally find it easier to look at the first few terms written out:



          beginalignsum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1
          &= p(1-p)^k + p(1-p)^k+1 + p(1-p)^k+2 + dots \
          &= p(1-p)^k left1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldotsright\
          &= p(1-p)^k frac11-(1-p) = (1-p)^kendalign




          Added to answer the questions in the comments:



          $P(X>k)$ is the probability of $X$ taking values greater than $k$ so:



          beginalign
          P(X>k) & = P(X=k+1)+P(X=k+2)+P(X=k+3)+dots \
          & = p(1-p)^k+1-1 + p(1-p)^k+2-1+ p(1-p)^k+3-1+dots
          endalign



          This is the same as writing $sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$.



          $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldots$ is the geometric series with $a=1$ and $r=1-p$. Plugging them in the formula $fraca1-r$ to get $frac11-(1-p)$.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          The main idea is using the geometric series $$sum_i=0^inftya , r^i = fraca1-r$$
          $P(X leq k)$ is a finite sum, while $P(X>k)$ is an infinite series, specifically a geometric series. So to utilize the geometric series expression, instead of looking at $P(X leq k)$ one looks at the equivalent $1-P(X>k)$.



          Then $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$ simplifies as done in your expression. I personally find it easier to look at the first few terms written out:



          beginalignsum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1
          &= p(1-p)^k + p(1-p)^k+1 + p(1-p)^k+2 + dots \
          &= p(1-p)^k left1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldotsright\
          &= p(1-p)^k frac11-(1-p) = (1-p)^kendalign




          Added to answer the questions in the comments:



          $P(X>k)$ is the probability of $X$ taking values greater than $k$ so:



          beginalign
          P(X>k) & = P(X=k+1)+P(X=k+2)+P(X=k+3)+dots \
          & = p(1-p)^k+1-1 + p(1-p)^k+2-1+ p(1-p)^k+3-1+dots
          endalign



          This is the same as writing $sum_i=k+1^inftyp(1-p)^i-1$.



          $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+ldots$ is the geometric series with $a=1$ and $r=1-p$. Plugging them in the formula $fraca1-r$ to get $frac11-(1-p)$.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 1 at 21:31


























          answered Jul 31 at 21:28









          Just_to_Answer

          65317




          65317











          • Tnanks for explanation. Could you maybe also break down how to utilize the geometri series to get to $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1$ ?
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 9:53











          • Also how is $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+...=frac11-(1-p)$? I appologize if my questions are elementary, by mathematical background is not great.
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 10:03











          • You are welcome. Please see the added explanations.
            – Just_to_Answer
            Aug 1 at 21:32
















          • Tnanks for explanation. Could you maybe also break down how to utilize the geometri series to get to $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1$ ?
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 9:53











          • Also how is $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+...=frac11-(1-p)$? I appologize if my questions are elementary, by mathematical background is not great.
            – user1607
            Aug 1 at 10:03











          • You are welcome. Please see the added explanations.
            – Just_to_Answer
            Aug 1 at 21:32















          Tnanks for explanation. Could you maybe also break down how to utilize the geometri series to get to $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1$ ?
          – user1607
          Aug 1 at 9:53





          Tnanks for explanation. Could you maybe also break down how to utilize the geometri series to get to $P(X>k)=sum_i=k+1p(1-p)^i-1$ ?
          – user1607
          Aug 1 at 9:53













          Also how is $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+...=frac11-(1-p)$? I appologize if my questions are elementary, by mathematical background is not great.
          – user1607
          Aug 1 at 10:03





          Also how is $1+(1-p)+(1-p)^2+...=frac11-(1-p)$? I appologize if my questions are elementary, by mathematical background is not great.
          – user1607
          Aug 1 at 10:03













          You are welcome. Please see the added explanations.
          – Just_to_Answer
          Aug 1 at 21:32




          You are welcome. Please see the added explanations.
          – Just_to_Answer
          Aug 1 at 21:32












           

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