Does it make sense to write the complex plane as the cartesian product between $mathbbR$ and $imathbbR$?

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Note: this question is inspired by someone (a teacher long time ago) who drew and labeled the two axes of the standard complex plane as $mathbbR$ and $imathbbR$.



Let $imathbbR = iy$



Does it make sense to write the complex plane $mathbbC$ as:



$mathbbC = mathbbR times imathbbR$?



Doing so, gives me that,



$mathbbC = (x,iy)$



But then again, the complex plane is usually defined as:



$mathbbC = z$



How to resolve these two seemingly different definitions?







share|cite|improve this question

























    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Note: this question is inspired by someone (a teacher long time ago) who drew and labeled the two axes of the standard complex plane as $mathbbR$ and $imathbbR$.



    Let $imathbbR = iy$



    Does it make sense to write the complex plane $mathbbC$ as:



    $mathbbC = mathbbR times imathbbR$?



    Doing so, gives me that,



    $mathbbC = (x,iy)$



    But then again, the complex plane is usually defined as:



    $mathbbC = z$



    How to resolve these two seemingly different definitions?







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Note: this question is inspired by someone (a teacher long time ago) who drew and labeled the two axes of the standard complex plane as $mathbbR$ and $imathbbR$.



      Let $imathbbR = iy$



      Does it make sense to write the complex plane $mathbbC$ as:



      $mathbbC = mathbbR times imathbbR$?



      Doing so, gives me that,



      $mathbbC = (x,iy)$



      But then again, the complex plane is usually defined as:



      $mathbbC = z$



      How to resolve these two seemingly different definitions?







      share|cite|improve this question













      Note: this question is inspired by someone (a teacher long time ago) who drew and labeled the two axes of the standard complex plane as $mathbbR$ and $imathbbR$.



      Let $imathbbR = iy$



      Does it make sense to write the complex plane $mathbbC$ as:



      $mathbbC = mathbbR times imathbbR$?



      Doing so, gives me that,



      $mathbbC = (x,iy)$



      But then again, the complex plane is usually defined as:



      $mathbbC = z$



      How to resolve these two seemingly different definitions?









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 1 at 6:04
























      asked Aug 1 at 5:50









      Roughly Stupid

      405




      405




















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          5
          down vote



          accepted










          It makes perfect sense to define $mathbbC$ in terms of $mathbbR times mathbbR$, with addition defined by
          $$(a, b) + (c, d) = (a + c, b + d)$$
          and multiplication defined by
          $$(a, b)(c, d) = (ac - bd, ad + bc).$$
          Structurally, this is absolutely identical to any of the other definitions of complex numbers. If you're happy to abuse notations and notate such pairs of the form $(a, 0)$ by the real number $a$, and denote by $i$ the element $(0, 1)$, then $(a, b) = a + ib$ for any $a, b in mathbbR$.



          So, how do we resolve the difference between this and other definitions? Well, we take the view that it doesn't matter. Whether you view complex numbers as matrices of the form $beginpmatrix x & -y \ y & x endpmatrix$, or as elements of the splitting field $mathbbR[x]/langle x^2 + 1 rangle$, or as ordered pairs from the definition above, the fact is that all of them produce an identical structure, and it is very simple to change between them in a way that respects addition and multiplication.



          (FYI, I didn't define $mathbbR times imathbbR$, because, before defining complex numbers, it's not clear what $i$ actually is. Sure, you can say it's the square root of $-1$, but that only shows the property it's supposed to satisfy, not what it really is, or what context it can be well-defined.)






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Aha, you got me completely. I didn't even define imaginary unit before defining the set of complex numbers -.-... Do you have a well-known reference (i.e., some algebra book or complex analysis book) for the matrix representation of complex numbers?
            – Roughly Stupid
            Aug 1 at 6:07










          • @RoughlyStupid I don't. I just came across it in some undergraduate course, from years ago. :-/
            – Theo Bendit
            Aug 1 at 6:08










          • That said, it's not long or difficult to verify for yourself!
            – Theo Bendit
            Aug 1 at 6:09

















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          As points, it makes sense. As additive groups, it makes sense. But there is no natural multiplication on $Bbb Rtimes iBbb R$ because the multiplication on $iBbb R$ isn't closed (it is not a ring, at least not with the standard multiplication). And even if there were, the multiplication in $Bbb C$ is not isomorphic to the natural multiplication of any (non-trivial) direct product of rings.



          As for how to reconcile the seemingly different definitions where they do make sense, you apply the "obvious" bijections / isomorphisms.






          share|cite|improve this answer























            Your Answer




            StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
            return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
            StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
            StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
            );
            );
            , "mathjax-editing");

            StackExchange.ready(function()
            var channelOptions =
            tags: "".split(" "),
            id: "69"
            ;
            initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

            StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
            // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
            if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
            StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
            createEditor();
            );

            else
            createEditor();

            );

            function createEditor()
            StackExchange.prepareEditor(
            heartbeatType: 'answer',
            convertImagesToLinks: true,
            noModals: false,
            showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
            reputationToPostImages: 10,
            bindNavPrevention: true,
            postfix: "",
            noCode: true, onDemand: true,
            discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
            ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
            );



            );








             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


















            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2868757%2fdoes-it-make-sense-to-write-the-complex-plane-as-the-cartesian-product-between%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest






























            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            5
            down vote



            accepted










            It makes perfect sense to define $mathbbC$ in terms of $mathbbR times mathbbR$, with addition defined by
            $$(a, b) + (c, d) = (a + c, b + d)$$
            and multiplication defined by
            $$(a, b)(c, d) = (ac - bd, ad + bc).$$
            Structurally, this is absolutely identical to any of the other definitions of complex numbers. If you're happy to abuse notations and notate such pairs of the form $(a, 0)$ by the real number $a$, and denote by $i$ the element $(0, 1)$, then $(a, b) = a + ib$ for any $a, b in mathbbR$.



            So, how do we resolve the difference between this and other definitions? Well, we take the view that it doesn't matter. Whether you view complex numbers as matrices of the form $beginpmatrix x & -y \ y & x endpmatrix$, or as elements of the splitting field $mathbbR[x]/langle x^2 + 1 rangle$, or as ordered pairs from the definition above, the fact is that all of them produce an identical structure, and it is very simple to change between them in a way that respects addition and multiplication.



            (FYI, I didn't define $mathbbR times imathbbR$, because, before defining complex numbers, it's not clear what $i$ actually is. Sure, you can say it's the square root of $-1$, but that only shows the property it's supposed to satisfy, not what it really is, or what context it can be well-defined.)






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Aha, you got me completely. I didn't even define imaginary unit before defining the set of complex numbers -.-... Do you have a well-known reference (i.e., some algebra book or complex analysis book) for the matrix representation of complex numbers?
              – Roughly Stupid
              Aug 1 at 6:07










            • @RoughlyStupid I don't. I just came across it in some undergraduate course, from years ago. :-/
              – Theo Bendit
              Aug 1 at 6:08










            • That said, it's not long or difficult to verify for yourself!
              – Theo Bendit
              Aug 1 at 6:09














            up vote
            5
            down vote



            accepted










            It makes perfect sense to define $mathbbC$ in terms of $mathbbR times mathbbR$, with addition defined by
            $$(a, b) + (c, d) = (a + c, b + d)$$
            and multiplication defined by
            $$(a, b)(c, d) = (ac - bd, ad + bc).$$
            Structurally, this is absolutely identical to any of the other definitions of complex numbers. If you're happy to abuse notations and notate such pairs of the form $(a, 0)$ by the real number $a$, and denote by $i$ the element $(0, 1)$, then $(a, b) = a + ib$ for any $a, b in mathbbR$.



            So, how do we resolve the difference between this and other definitions? Well, we take the view that it doesn't matter. Whether you view complex numbers as matrices of the form $beginpmatrix x & -y \ y & x endpmatrix$, or as elements of the splitting field $mathbbR[x]/langle x^2 + 1 rangle$, or as ordered pairs from the definition above, the fact is that all of them produce an identical structure, and it is very simple to change between them in a way that respects addition and multiplication.



            (FYI, I didn't define $mathbbR times imathbbR$, because, before defining complex numbers, it's not clear what $i$ actually is. Sure, you can say it's the square root of $-1$, but that only shows the property it's supposed to satisfy, not what it really is, or what context it can be well-defined.)






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Aha, you got me completely. I didn't even define imaginary unit before defining the set of complex numbers -.-... Do you have a well-known reference (i.e., some algebra book or complex analysis book) for the matrix representation of complex numbers?
              – Roughly Stupid
              Aug 1 at 6:07










            • @RoughlyStupid I don't. I just came across it in some undergraduate course, from years ago. :-/
              – Theo Bendit
              Aug 1 at 6:08










            • That said, it's not long or difficult to verify for yourself!
              – Theo Bendit
              Aug 1 at 6:09












            up vote
            5
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            5
            down vote



            accepted






            It makes perfect sense to define $mathbbC$ in terms of $mathbbR times mathbbR$, with addition defined by
            $$(a, b) + (c, d) = (a + c, b + d)$$
            and multiplication defined by
            $$(a, b)(c, d) = (ac - bd, ad + bc).$$
            Structurally, this is absolutely identical to any of the other definitions of complex numbers. If you're happy to abuse notations and notate such pairs of the form $(a, 0)$ by the real number $a$, and denote by $i$ the element $(0, 1)$, then $(a, b) = a + ib$ for any $a, b in mathbbR$.



            So, how do we resolve the difference between this and other definitions? Well, we take the view that it doesn't matter. Whether you view complex numbers as matrices of the form $beginpmatrix x & -y \ y & x endpmatrix$, or as elements of the splitting field $mathbbR[x]/langle x^2 + 1 rangle$, or as ordered pairs from the definition above, the fact is that all of them produce an identical structure, and it is very simple to change between them in a way that respects addition and multiplication.



            (FYI, I didn't define $mathbbR times imathbbR$, because, before defining complex numbers, it's not clear what $i$ actually is. Sure, you can say it's the square root of $-1$, but that only shows the property it's supposed to satisfy, not what it really is, or what context it can be well-defined.)






            share|cite|improve this answer













            It makes perfect sense to define $mathbbC$ in terms of $mathbbR times mathbbR$, with addition defined by
            $$(a, b) + (c, d) = (a + c, b + d)$$
            and multiplication defined by
            $$(a, b)(c, d) = (ac - bd, ad + bc).$$
            Structurally, this is absolutely identical to any of the other definitions of complex numbers. If you're happy to abuse notations and notate such pairs of the form $(a, 0)$ by the real number $a$, and denote by $i$ the element $(0, 1)$, then $(a, b) = a + ib$ for any $a, b in mathbbR$.



            So, how do we resolve the difference between this and other definitions? Well, we take the view that it doesn't matter. Whether you view complex numbers as matrices of the form $beginpmatrix x & -y \ y & x endpmatrix$, or as elements of the splitting field $mathbbR[x]/langle x^2 + 1 rangle$, or as ordered pairs from the definition above, the fact is that all of them produce an identical structure, and it is very simple to change between them in a way that respects addition and multiplication.



            (FYI, I didn't define $mathbbR times imathbbR$, because, before defining complex numbers, it's not clear what $i$ actually is. Sure, you can say it's the square root of $-1$, but that only shows the property it's supposed to satisfy, not what it really is, or what context it can be well-defined.)







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Aug 1 at 6:00









            Theo Bendit

            11.7k1841




            11.7k1841











            • Aha, you got me completely. I didn't even define imaginary unit before defining the set of complex numbers -.-... Do you have a well-known reference (i.e., some algebra book or complex analysis book) for the matrix representation of complex numbers?
              – Roughly Stupid
              Aug 1 at 6:07










            • @RoughlyStupid I don't. I just came across it in some undergraduate course, from years ago. :-/
              – Theo Bendit
              Aug 1 at 6:08










            • That said, it's not long or difficult to verify for yourself!
              – Theo Bendit
              Aug 1 at 6:09
















            • Aha, you got me completely. I didn't even define imaginary unit before defining the set of complex numbers -.-... Do you have a well-known reference (i.e., some algebra book or complex analysis book) for the matrix representation of complex numbers?
              – Roughly Stupid
              Aug 1 at 6:07










            • @RoughlyStupid I don't. I just came across it in some undergraduate course, from years ago. :-/
              – Theo Bendit
              Aug 1 at 6:08










            • That said, it's not long or difficult to verify for yourself!
              – Theo Bendit
              Aug 1 at 6:09















            Aha, you got me completely. I didn't even define imaginary unit before defining the set of complex numbers -.-... Do you have a well-known reference (i.e., some algebra book or complex analysis book) for the matrix representation of complex numbers?
            – Roughly Stupid
            Aug 1 at 6:07




            Aha, you got me completely. I didn't even define imaginary unit before defining the set of complex numbers -.-... Do you have a well-known reference (i.e., some algebra book or complex analysis book) for the matrix representation of complex numbers?
            – Roughly Stupid
            Aug 1 at 6:07












            @RoughlyStupid I don't. I just came across it in some undergraduate course, from years ago. :-/
            – Theo Bendit
            Aug 1 at 6:08




            @RoughlyStupid I don't. I just came across it in some undergraduate course, from years ago. :-/
            – Theo Bendit
            Aug 1 at 6:08












            That said, it's not long or difficult to verify for yourself!
            – Theo Bendit
            Aug 1 at 6:09




            That said, it's not long or difficult to verify for yourself!
            – Theo Bendit
            Aug 1 at 6:09










            up vote
            1
            down vote













            As points, it makes sense. As additive groups, it makes sense. But there is no natural multiplication on $Bbb Rtimes iBbb R$ because the multiplication on $iBbb R$ isn't closed (it is not a ring, at least not with the standard multiplication). And even if there were, the multiplication in $Bbb C$ is not isomorphic to the natural multiplication of any (non-trivial) direct product of rings.



            As for how to reconcile the seemingly different definitions where they do make sense, you apply the "obvious" bijections / isomorphisms.






            share|cite|improve this answer



























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              As points, it makes sense. As additive groups, it makes sense. But there is no natural multiplication on $Bbb Rtimes iBbb R$ because the multiplication on $iBbb R$ isn't closed (it is not a ring, at least not with the standard multiplication). And even if there were, the multiplication in $Bbb C$ is not isomorphic to the natural multiplication of any (non-trivial) direct product of rings.



              As for how to reconcile the seemingly different definitions where they do make sense, you apply the "obvious" bijections / isomorphisms.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote










                up vote
                1
                down vote









                As points, it makes sense. As additive groups, it makes sense. But there is no natural multiplication on $Bbb Rtimes iBbb R$ because the multiplication on $iBbb R$ isn't closed (it is not a ring, at least not with the standard multiplication). And even if there were, the multiplication in $Bbb C$ is not isomorphic to the natural multiplication of any (non-trivial) direct product of rings.



                As for how to reconcile the seemingly different definitions where they do make sense, you apply the "obvious" bijections / isomorphisms.






                share|cite|improve this answer















                As points, it makes sense. As additive groups, it makes sense. But there is no natural multiplication on $Bbb Rtimes iBbb R$ because the multiplication on $iBbb R$ isn't closed (it is not a ring, at least not with the standard multiplication). And even if there were, the multiplication in $Bbb C$ is not isomorphic to the natural multiplication of any (non-trivial) direct product of rings.



                As for how to reconcile the seemingly different definitions where they do make sense, you apply the "obvious" bijections / isomorphisms.







                share|cite|improve this answer















                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer








                edited Aug 1 at 6:06


























                answered Aug 1 at 6:01









                Arthur

                98.3k793174




                98.3k793174






















                     

                    draft saved


                    draft discarded


























                     


                    draft saved


                    draft discarded














                    StackExchange.ready(
                    function ()
                    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2868757%2fdoes-it-make-sense-to-write-the-complex-plane-as-the-cartesian-product-between%23new-answer', 'question_page');

                    );

                    Post as a guest













































































                    Comments

                    Popular posts from this blog

                    What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

                    Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

                    Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?