Does there exist a nice closed form for multidimensional linear recurrence relations like those of single-dimensional ones?

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If we have the recurrence relation



$$sum_j=0^k a_n-jc_j = 0$$



for all $ngeq k$ and $lambda_1,cdots,lambda_s$ are the (complex) roots of



$$P(lambda) = sum_j=0^k c_jlambda^j$$



with multiplicities $m_1,cdots,m_s$, then we may write



$$a_n = sum_i=1^s lambda_i^n Q_i(n),$$



where $Q_i(n)$ is a polynomial of degree at most $m_i-1$.



What if we have a recurrence of the form



$$sum_mathbfsin S c_mathbfsa_mathbfn-mathbfs = 0,$$



where $S$ is a set of vectors in $mathbbZ_geq 0^N$ and $mathbfninmathbbZ_geq 0^N$ so that each component of $mathbfn$ is $geq$ the corresponding component of any $mathbfsin S$. Can one find a similarly nice closed form for $a_mathbfn$, possibly using the zero set of



$$P(x_1,cdots,x_N) = sum_mathbfsin S c_mathbfs prod_i=1^N x_i^mathbfs_i?$$



I've been able to deduce that the generating function



$$f(x_1,cdots,x_N) = sum_mathbfninmathbbZ_geq 0^N a_mathbfnprod_i=1^N x_i^mathbfn_i$$



satisfies



$$f(x_1,cdots,x_N)P(x_1,cdots,x_N) = Q(x_1,cdots,x_N)$$



for some polynomial $Q$ with nonzero terms only at $prod_i=1^N x_i^mathbft_i$ for vectors $t$ that are $leq$ some element of $S$ in all components, with strict $<$ holding in at least one component - an analogue of the first step of solving a standard one-dimensional linear recurrence. But I'm afraid I can't figure out how to continue from here, or even if one can.







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  • you have described (by dividing out by leading coefficient) the Markov type process $x_n+1 = M x_n$ with column vectors $x$ and square matrix $M.$ One may proceed by diagonalizing $P^-1MP$ and using revised vector..
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:42










  • I guess your $M$ has a special form as it also shifts the sequence by $1$
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:44











  • @WillJagy Thanks for your comment! I can't quite understand why this is true, however. What are the entries of your $x_i$, and how are you constructing $M$ from the recurrence?
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Aug 1 at 19:53










  • We can get the Fibonacci numbers with matrix $$ M = left( beginarraycc 1 & 1 \ 1 & 0endarrayright) $$ acting on column vector $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+1 \ x_n endarrayright) $$ to result in $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+2 \ x_n+1 endarrayright) $$ For this method, the matrix $M$ will always come out to be a "companion matrix" or transpose, depends on how we make choices.
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:57







  • 1




    @WillJagy Thanks! I think that idea very well might be adaptable; even though $mathbbZ^N$ and $mathbbZ$ are isomorphic, I don't believe one can turn a recurrence of this form into a simple standard linear recurrence (although using any standard bijection) we can transform it into a single 1D sequence. There might be some better way to one-dimensionally represent such a recurrence, however.
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Aug 1 at 20:26














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












If we have the recurrence relation



$$sum_j=0^k a_n-jc_j = 0$$



for all $ngeq k$ and $lambda_1,cdots,lambda_s$ are the (complex) roots of



$$P(lambda) = sum_j=0^k c_jlambda^j$$



with multiplicities $m_1,cdots,m_s$, then we may write



$$a_n = sum_i=1^s lambda_i^n Q_i(n),$$



where $Q_i(n)$ is a polynomial of degree at most $m_i-1$.



What if we have a recurrence of the form



$$sum_mathbfsin S c_mathbfsa_mathbfn-mathbfs = 0,$$



where $S$ is a set of vectors in $mathbbZ_geq 0^N$ and $mathbfninmathbbZ_geq 0^N$ so that each component of $mathbfn$ is $geq$ the corresponding component of any $mathbfsin S$. Can one find a similarly nice closed form for $a_mathbfn$, possibly using the zero set of



$$P(x_1,cdots,x_N) = sum_mathbfsin S c_mathbfs prod_i=1^N x_i^mathbfs_i?$$



I've been able to deduce that the generating function



$$f(x_1,cdots,x_N) = sum_mathbfninmathbbZ_geq 0^N a_mathbfnprod_i=1^N x_i^mathbfn_i$$



satisfies



$$f(x_1,cdots,x_N)P(x_1,cdots,x_N) = Q(x_1,cdots,x_N)$$



for some polynomial $Q$ with nonzero terms only at $prod_i=1^N x_i^mathbft_i$ for vectors $t$ that are $leq$ some element of $S$ in all components, with strict $<$ holding in at least one component - an analogue of the first step of solving a standard one-dimensional linear recurrence. But I'm afraid I can't figure out how to continue from here, or even if one can.







share|cite|improve this question



















  • you have described (by dividing out by leading coefficient) the Markov type process $x_n+1 = M x_n$ with column vectors $x$ and square matrix $M.$ One may proceed by diagonalizing $P^-1MP$ and using revised vector..
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:42










  • I guess your $M$ has a special form as it also shifts the sequence by $1$
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:44











  • @WillJagy Thanks for your comment! I can't quite understand why this is true, however. What are the entries of your $x_i$, and how are you constructing $M$ from the recurrence?
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Aug 1 at 19:53










  • We can get the Fibonacci numbers with matrix $$ M = left( beginarraycc 1 & 1 \ 1 & 0endarrayright) $$ acting on column vector $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+1 \ x_n endarrayright) $$ to result in $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+2 \ x_n+1 endarrayright) $$ For this method, the matrix $M$ will always come out to be a "companion matrix" or transpose, depends on how we make choices.
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:57







  • 1




    @WillJagy Thanks! I think that idea very well might be adaptable; even though $mathbbZ^N$ and $mathbbZ$ are isomorphic, I don't believe one can turn a recurrence of this form into a simple standard linear recurrence (although using any standard bijection) we can transform it into a single 1D sequence. There might be some better way to one-dimensionally represent such a recurrence, however.
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Aug 1 at 20:26












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











If we have the recurrence relation



$$sum_j=0^k a_n-jc_j = 0$$



for all $ngeq k$ and $lambda_1,cdots,lambda_s$ are the (complex) roots of



$$P(lambda) = sum_j=0^k c_jlambda^j$$



with multiplicities $m_1,cdots,m_s$, then we may write



$$a_n = sum_i=1^s lambda_i^n Q_i(n),$$



where $Q_i(n)$ is a polynomial of degree at most $m_i-1$.



What if we have a recurrence of the form



$$sum_mathbfsin S c_mathbfsa_mathbfn-mathbfs = 0,$$



where $S$ is a set of vectors in $mathbbZ_geq 0^N$ and $mathbfninmathbbZ_geq 0^N$ so that each component of $mathbfn$ is $geq$ the corresponding component of any $mathbfsin S$. Can one find a similarly nice closed form for $a_mathbfn$, possibly using the zero set of



$$P(x_1,cdots,x_N) = sum_mathbfsin S c_mathbfs prod_i=1^N x_i^mathbfs_i?$$



I've been able to deduce that the generating function



$$f(x_1,cdots,x_N) = sum_mathbfninmathbbZ_geq 0^N a_mathbfnprod_i=1^N x_i^mathbfn_i$$



satisfies



$$f(x_1,cdots,x_N)P(x_1,cdots,x_N) = Q(x_1,cdots,x_N)$$



for some polynomial $Q$ with nonzero terms only at $prod_i=1^N x_i^mathbft_i$ for vectors $t$ that are $leq$ some element of $S$ in all components, with strict $<$ holding in at least one component - an analogue of the first step of solving a standard one-dimensional linear recurrence. But I'm afraid I can't figure out how to continue from here, or even if one can.







share|cite|improve this question











If we have the recurrence relation



$$sum_j=0^k a_n-jc_j = 0$$



for all $ngeq k$ and $lambda_1,cdots,lambda_s$ are the (complex) roots of



$$P(lambda) = sum_j=0^k c_jlambda^j$$



with multiplicities $m_1,cdots,m_s$, then we may write



$$a_n = sum_i=1^s lambda_i^n Q_i(n),$$



where $Q_i(n)$ is a polynomial of degree at most $m_i-1$.



What if we have a recurrence of the form



$$sum_mathbfsin S c_mathbfsa_mathbfn-mathbfs = 0,$$



where $S$ is a set of vectors in $mathbbZ_geq 0^N$ and $mathbfninmathbbZ_geq 0^N$ so that each component of $mathbfn$ is $geq$ the corresponding component of any $mathbfsin S$. Can one find a similarly nice closed form for $a_mathbfn$, possibly using the zero set of



$$P(x_1,cdots,x_N) = sum_mathbfsin S c_mathbfs prod_i=1^N x_i^mathbfs_i?$$



I've been able to deduce that the generating function



$$f(x_1,cdots,x_N) = sum_mathbfninmathbbZ_geq 0^N a_mathbfnprod_i=1^N x_i^mathbfn_i$$



satisfies



$$f(x_1,cdots,x_N)P(x_1,cdots,x_N) = Q(x_1,cdots,x_N)$$



for some polynomial $Q$ with nonzero terms only at $prod_i=1^N x_i^mathbft_i$ for vectors $t$ that are $leq$ some element of $S$ in all components, with strict $<$ holding in at least one component - an analogue of the first step of solving a standard one-dimensional linear recurrence. But I'm afraid I can't figure out how to continue from here, or even if one can.









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Aug 1 at 18:50









Carl Schildkraut

8,23711238




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  • you have described (by dividing out by leading coefficient) the Markov type process $x_n+1 = M x_n$ with column vectors $x$ and square matrix $M.$ One may proceed by diagonalizing $P^-1MP$ and using revised vector..
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:42










  • I guess your $M$ has a special form as it also shifts the sequence by $1$
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:44











  • @WillJagy Thanks for your comment! I can't quite understand why this is true, however. What are the entries of your $x_i$, and how are you constructing $M$ from the recurrence?
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Aug 1 at 19:53










  • We can get the Fibonacci numbers with matrix $$ M = left( beginarraycc 1 & 1 \ 1 & 0endarrayright) $$ acting on column vector $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+1 \ x_n endarrayright) $$ to result in $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+2 \ x_n+1 endarrayright) $$ For this method, the matrix $M$ will always come out to be a "companion matrix" or transpose, depends on how we make choices.
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:57







  • 1




    @WillJagy Thanks! I think that idea very well might be adaptable; even though $mathbbZ^N$ and $mathbbZ$ are isomorphic, I don't believe one can turn a recurrence of this form into a simple standard linear recurrence (although using any standard bijection) we can transform it into a single 1D sequence. There might be some better way to one-dimensionally represent such a recurrence, however.
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Aug 1 at 20:26
















  • you have described (by dividing out by leading coefficient) the Markov type process $x_n+1 = M x_n$ with column vectors $x$ and square matrix $M.$ One may proceed by diagonalizing $P^-1MP$ and using revised vector..
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:42










  • I guess your $M$ has a special form as it also shifts the sequence by $1$
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:44











  • @WillJagy Thanks for your comment! I can't quite understand why this is true, however. What are the entries of your $x_i$, and how are you constructing $M$ from the recurrence?
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Aug 1 at 19:53










  • We can get the Fibonacci numbers with matrix $$ M = left( beginarraycc 1 & 1 \ 1 & 0endarrayright) $$ acting on column vector $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+1 \ x_n endarrayright) $$ to result in $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+2 \ x_n+1 endarrayright) $$ For this method, the matrix $M$ will always come out to be a "companion matrix" or transpose, depends on how we make choices.
    – Will Jagy
    Aug 1 at 19:57







  • 1




    @WillJagy Thanks! I think that idea very well might be adaptable; even though $mathbbZ^N$ and $mathbbZ$ are isomorphic, I don't believe one can turn a recurrence of this form into a simple standard linear recurrence (although using any standard bijection) we can transform it into a single 1D sequence. There might be some better way to one-dimensionally represent such a recurrence, however.
    – Carl Schildkraut
    Aug 1 at 20:26















you have described (by dividing out by leading coefficient) the Markov type process $x_n+1 = M x_n$ with column vectors $x$ and square matrix $M.$ One may proceed by diagonalizing $P^-1MP$ and using revised vector..
– Will Jagy
Aug 1 at 19:42




you have described (by dividing out by leading coefficient) the Markov type process $x_n+1 = M x_n$ with column vectors $x$ and square matrix $M.$ One may proceed by diagonalizing $P^-1MP$ and using revised vector..
– Will Jagy
Aug 1 at 19:42












I guess your $M$ has a special form as it also shifts the sequence by $1$
– Will Jagy
Aug 1 at 19:44





I guess your $M$ has a special form as it also shifts the sequence by $1$
– Will Jagy
Aug 1 at 19:44













@WillJagy Thanks for your comment! I can't quite understand why this is true, however. What are the entries of your $x_i$, and how are you constructing $M$ from the recurrence?
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 1 at 19:53




@WillJagy Thanks for your comment! I can't quite understand why this is true, however. What are the entries of your $x_i$, and how are you constructing $M$ from the recurrence?
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 1 at 19:53












We can get the Fibonacci numbers with matrix $$ M = left( beginarraycc 1 & 1 \ 1 & 0endarrayright) $$ acting on column vector $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+1 \ x_n endarrayright) $$ to result in $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+2 \ x_n+1 endarrayright) $$ For this method, the matrix $M$ will always come out to be a "companion matrix" or transpose, depends on how we make choices.
– Will Jagy
Aug 1 at 19:57





We can get the Fibonacci numbers with matrix $$ M = left( beginarraycc 1 & 1 \ 1 & 0endarrayright) $$ acting on column vector $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+1 \ x_n endarrayright) $$ to result in $$ left( beginarrayc x_n+2 \ x_n+1 endarrayright) $$ For this method, the matrix $M$ will always come out to be a "companion matrix" or transpose, depends on how we make choices.
– Will Jagy
Aug 1 at 19:57





1




1




@WillJagy Thanks! I think that idea very well might be adaptable; even though $mathbbZ^N$ and $mathbbZ$ are isomorphic, I don't believe one can turn a recurrence of this form into a simple standard linear recurrence (although using any standard bijection) we can transform it into a single 1D sequence. There might be some better way to one-dimensionally represent such a recurrence, however.
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 1 at 20:26




@WillJagy Thanks! I think that idea very well might be adaptable; even though $mathbbZ^N$ and $mathbbZ$ are isomorphic, I don't believe one can turn a recurrence of this form into a simple standard linear recurrence (although using any standard bijection) we can transform it into a single 1D sequence. There might be some better way to one-dimensionally represent such a recurrence, however.
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 1 at 20:26















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