How to obtain the equation of a plane which intersects with a given plane in a given line

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Given the plane $2x + y - 3z = 1$.
How to obtain the equation of a plane which intersects this plane in the line
$$r=left(
beginarrayc1\2\1\endarrayright)+tleft(
beginarrayc1\-2\0\endarrayright)?$$



I have assumed that the other plane is $ax+by+cz=d$. Then the line satisfies this plane $$a(1+t)+b(2-2t)+c=d.$$
But I can't proceed from here.







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    Given the plane $2x + y - 3z = 1$.
    How to obtain the equation of a plane which intersects this plane in the line
    $$r=left(
    beginarrayc1\2\1\endarrayright)+tleft(
    beginarrayc1\-2\0\endarrayright)?$$



    I have assumed that the other plane is $ax+by+cz=d$. Then the line satisfies this plane $$a(1+t)+b(2-2t)+c=d.$$
    But I can't proceed from here.







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      Given the plane $2x + y - 3z = 1$.
      How to obtain the equation of a plane which intersects this plane in the line
      $$r=left(
      beginarrayc1\2\1\endarrayright)+tleft(
      beginarrayc1\-2\0\endarrayright)?$$



      I have assumed that the other plane is $ax+by+cz=d$. Then the line satisfies this plane $$a(1+t)+b(2-2t)+c=d.$$
      But I can't proceed from here.







      share|cite|improve this question











      Given the plane $2x + y - 3z = 1$.
      How to obtain the equation of a plane which intersects this plane in the line
      $$r=left(
      beginarrayc1\2\1\endarrayright)+tleft(
      beginarrayc1\-2\0\endarrayright)?$$



      I have assumed that the other plane is $ax+by+cz=d$. Then the line satisfies this plane $$a(1+t)+b(2-2t)+c=d.$$
      But I can't proceed from here.









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Aug 1 at 13:43









      Sulayman

      1807




      1807




















          7 Answers
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          up vote
          3
          down vote



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          I will follow your idea. From $$a(1+t)+b(2-2t)+c=d$$ you get



          $$at-2bt+a+2b+c=d.$$ To have the equality it is obvious that $a=2b.$ So you have the relation



          $$4b+c=d.$$



          Thus, any plane of the form



          $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$ solves the problem. (Well, you have to exclude $2x+y-3z=1$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I got hung up on “To have equality it is obvious that $a=2b$.” But now I see why: the equation $at-2bt+a+2b+c=d$ must be satisfied for all $t$. The only way this can happen is if the coefficient of $t$ is zero.
            – Matthew Leingang
            Aug 1 at 14:36










          • @MatthewLeingang You are right. That's the reason.
            – mfl
            Aug 1 at 14:39

















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          If all you know is that the line $r$ lies in the desired plane, then the plane is not unique. If we find one such plane, we can rotate it about the line $r$ to obtain another plane in which $r$ lies. This means that there is a one-parameter family of planes that could solve the problem.



          The fact that the line $r$ lies in another plane is immaterial to the question, unless for some reason $r$ doesn't actually lie in the other plane (in which case there is no plane which intersects the other plane in $r$.)






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            1
            down vote













            A plane $P$ is an answer two your question if and only if:



            1. $P$ isn't the plane $2x+y-3y=1$;

            2. $rsubset P$.

            Now, a plane $P$ defined by $ax+by+cz=d$ contains $r$ if and only if $(1,2,1),(2,0,1)in P$. This means that$$left{beginarrayla+2b+c=d\2a+c=d,endarrayright.$$which is equivalent to $a=2b$ and $c=-4b+d$. So, the answer is: the planes of the form$$2bx+by+(-4b+d)z=d,$$for which there's no $lambdainmathbb R$ such that $lambda(2,1,-3,1)=(2b,b,-4b+d,d)$.






            share|cite|improve this answer




























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              For the new plane we need that the normal vector $vec n=(a,b,c)$ is orthogonal to the given line that is



              $$(a,b,c)cdot (1,-2,0)=0 implies (a,b,c)=(2,1,0)$$



              and we obtain



              $$2x+y+d=0$$



              then we can find $d$ by the condition that $P=(1,2,1)$ belongs to the plane, that is



              $$2+2+d=0implies d=-4$$



              therefore



              $$2x+y-4=0$$



              is a possible solution.






              share|cite|improve this answer






























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                For example, take
                $$(x,y,z)=(1,2,1)+t(1,-2,0)+s(1,0,1),$$
                which gives $$2x+y-2z-2=0.$$






                share|cite|improve this answer




























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote













                  Try to think geometrically rather than algebraically. You're given a plane $Pi$; think about this plane as determined by a reference point and a normal vector $mathbfn$. You're also given a line $ell$ within that plane; that's determined by a reference point and a direction vector $mathbfv$. Since $ell$ is contained in $Pi$, we can choose the reference points of each to be the same point $P$, and we know that $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are orthogonal.



                  We want another plane $Pi'$; again, it's determined by a reference point and normal vector $mathbfn'$. It's required to include $ell$, so it must contain $P$, and $mathbfn'$ must be orthogonal to $mathbfv$ too. We might as well use $P$ as the reference point for $Pi'$. As long as $mathbfn'$ is not parallel to $mathbfn$ (otherwise the planes coincide), their intersection will be $ell$ alone.



                  It remains to find a vector $mathbfn'$ that is perpendicular to $mathbfv$ and not parallel to $mathbfn$. Now it's an algebra problem, but let's keep it in terms of vector algebra. There are infinitely many choices, but one convenient one is $mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv$. This is nonzero because $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are nonzero orthogonal vectors, and it's orthogonal to both $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$. In particular, it's not parallel to $mathbfn$.



                  Therefore a solution to your problem is the plane through $P$ normal to $mathbfn times mathbfv$, where $P$ is a point on $ell$, $mathbfv$ is a direction vector of $ell$, and $mathbfn$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. And we did this without any messy algebra!



                  But you probably need an equation for this plane. Remember $P$ can be any point on $ell$. Since $ell$ is parametrized by a vector function $mathbfr(t)$, a convenient point to call $P$ is the tip of $mathbfr(0)$. That is, let $P = (1,2,1)$. Since $Pi$ has equation $2x + y - 3z = 1$, the vector of coefficients $mathbfn = left<2,1,-3right>$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. Finally, a direction vector $mathbfv$ to $ell$ can be found by taking $mathbfr'(t) = left<1,-2,0right>$. Therefore,
                  $$
                  mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv = left<-6,-3,-5right>
                  $$
                  And $Pi'$ has equation
                  beginalign*
                  -6(x-1) - 3(y-2) - 5(z-1) &= 0
                  \implies
                  -6x -3y - 5z &= -17
                  \implies
                  6x + 3y + 5z &= 17
                  endalign*






                  share|cite|improve this answer




























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                    There are infinitely many such planes e.g. one is the plane itself and the other is the perpendicular plane. If we denote the characteristic vector of the unknown plane by $(a,b,c)$ it's obvious that it should be normal on the characteristic vector of the given line, (1,-2,0) which means that $$a-2b=0$$so the vector is $$(2b,b,c)$$ but the plane also includes (1,2,1) which means that $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$if $bne0$ we have $$2x+y+lambda z=4+lambdaquad,quad lambdainBbb R$$which is one set of planes. The other plane is $z=1$






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                      7 Answers
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                      active

                      oldest

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                      7 Answers
                      7






                      active

                      oldest

                      votes









                      active

                      oldest

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                      active

                      oldest

                      votes








                      up vote
                      3
                      down vote



                      accepted










                      I will follow your idea. From $$a(1+t)+b(2-2t)+c=d$$ you get



                      $$at-2bt+a+2b+c=d.$$ To have the equality it is obvious that $a=2b.$ So you have the relation



                      $$4b+c=d.$$



                      Thus, any plane of the form



                      $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$ solves the problem. (Well, you have to exclude $2x+y-3z=1$.)






                      share|cite|improve this answer























                      • I got hung up on “To have equality it is obvious that $a=2b$.” But now I see why: the equation $at-2bt+a+2b+c=d$ must be satisfied for all $t$. The only way this can happen is if the coefficient of $t$ is zero.
                        – Matthew Leingang
                        Aug 1 at 14:36










                      • @MatthewLeingang You are right. That's the reason.
                        – mfl
                        Aug 1 at 14:39














                      up vote
                      3
                      down vote



                      accepted










                      I will follow your idea. From $$a(1+t)+b(2-2t)+c=d$$ you get



                      $$at-2bt+a+2b+c=d.$$ To have the equality it is obvious that $a=2b.$ So you have the relation



                      $$4b+c=d.$$



                      Thus, any plane of the form



                      $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$ solves the problem. (Well, you have to exclude $2x+y-3z=1$.)






                      share|cite|improve this answer























                      • I got hung up on “To have equality it is obvious that $a=2b$.” But now I see why: the equation $at-2bt+a+2b+c=d$ must be satisfied for all $t$. The only way this can happen is if the coefficient of $t$ is zero.
                        – Matthew Leingang
                        Aug 1 at 14:36










                      • @MatthewLeingang You are right. That's the reason.
                        – mfl
                        Aug 1 at 14:39












                      up vote
                      3
                      down vote



                      accepted







                      up vote
                      3
                      down vote



                      accepted






                      I will follow your idea. From $$a(1+t)+b(2-2t)+c=d$$ you get



                      $$at-2bt+a+2b+c=d.$$ To have the equality it is obvious that $a=2b.$ So you have the relation



                      $$4b+c=d.$$



                      Thus, any plane of the form



                      $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$ solves the problem. (Well, you have to exclude $2x+y-3z=1$.)






                      share|cite|improve this answer















                      I will follow your idea. From $$a(1+t)+b(2-2t)+c=d$$ you get



                      $$at-2bt+a+2b+c=d.$$ To have the equality it is obvious that $a=2b.$ So you have the relation



                      $$4b+c=d.$$



                      Thus, any plane of the form



                      $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$ solves the problem. (Well, you have to exclude $2x+y-3z=1$.)







                      share|cite|improve this answer















                      share|cite|improve this answer



                      share|cite|improve this answer








                      edited Aug 2 at 7:58


























                      answered Aug 1 at 14:20









                      mfl

                      22.9k11837




                      22.9k11837











                      • I got hung up on “To have equality it is obvious that $a=2b$.” But now I see why: the equation $at-2bt+a+2b+c=d$ must be satisfied for all $t$. The only way this can happen is if the coefficient of $t$ is zero.
                        – Matthew Leingang
                        Aug 1 at 14:36










                      • @MatthewLeingang You are right. That's the reason.
                        – mfl
                        Aug 1 at 14:39
















                      • I got hung up on “To have equality it is obvious that $a=2b$.” But now I see why: the equation $at-2bt+a+2b+c=d$ must be satisfied for all $t$. The only way this can happen is if the coefficient of $t$ is zero.
                        – Matthew Leingang
                        Aug 1 at 14:36










                      • @MatthewLeingang You are right. That's the reason.
                        – mfl
                        Aug 1 at 14:39















                      I got hung up on “To have equality it is obvious that $a=2b$.” But now I see why: the equation $at-2bt+a+2b+c=d$ must be satisfied for all $t$. The only way this can happen is if the coefficient of $t$ is zero.
                      – Matthew Leingang
                      Aug 1 at 14:36




                      I got hung up on “To have equality it is obvious that $a=2b$.” But now I see why: the equation $at-2bt+a+2b+c=d$ must be satisfied for all $t$. The only way this can happen is if the coefficient of $t$ is zero.
                      – Matthew Leingang
                      Aug 1 at 14:36












                      @MatthewLeingang You are right. That's the reason.
                      – mfl
                      Aug 1 at 14:39




                      @MatthewLeingang You are right. That's the reason.
                      – mfl
                      Aug 1 at 14:39










                      up vote
                      1
                      down vote













                      If all you know is that the line $r$ lies in the desired plane, then the plane is not unique. If we find one such plane, we can rotate it about the line $r$ to obtain another plane in which $r$ lies. This means that there is a one-parameter family of planes that could solve the problem.



                      The fact that the line $r$ lies in another plane is immaterial to the question, unless for some reason $r$ doesn't actually lie in the other plane (in which case there is no plane which intersects the other plane in $r$.)






                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        1
                        down vote













                        If all you know is that the line $r$ lies in the desired plane, then the plane is not unique. If we find one such plane, we can rotate it about the line $r$ to obtain another plane in which $r$ lies. This means that there is a one-parameter family of planes that could solve the problem.



                        The fact that the line $r$ lies in another plane is immaterial to the question, unless for some reason $r$ doesn't actually lie in the other plane (in which case there is no plane which intersects the other plane in $r$.)






                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          1
                          down vote









                          If all you know is that the line $r$ lies in the desired plane, then the plane is not unique. If we find one such plane, we can rotate it about the line $r$ to obtain another plane in which $r$ lies. This means that there is a one-parameter family of planes that could solve the problem.



                          The fact that the line $r$ lies in another plane is immaterial to the question, unless for some reason $r$ doesn't actually lie in the other plane (in which case there is no plane which intersects the other plane in $r$.)






                          share|cite|improve this answer













                          If all you know is that the line $r$ lies in the desired plane, then the plane is not unique. If we find one such plane, we can rotate it about the line $r$ to obtain another plane in which $r$ lies. This means that there is a one-parameter family of planes that could solve the problem.



                          The fact that the line $r$ lies in another plane is immaterial to the question, unless for some reason $r$ doesn't actually lie in the other plane (in which case there is no plane which intersects the other plane in $r$.)







                          share|cite|improve this answer













                          share|cite|improve this answer



                          share|cite|improve this answer











                          answered Aug 1 at 13:54









                          Michael Seifert

                          4,449623




                          4,449623




















                              up vote
                              1
                              down vote













                              A plane $P$ is an answer two your question if and only if:



                              1. $P$ isn't the plane $2x+y-3y=1$;

                              2. $rsubset P$.

                              Now, a plane $P$ defined by $ax+by+cz=d$ contains $r$ if and only if $(1,2,1),(2,0,1)in P$. This means that$$left{beginarrayla+2b+c=d\2a+c=d,endarrayright.$$which is equivalent to $a=2b$ and $c=-4b+d$. So, the answer is: the planes of the form$$2bx+by+(-4b+d)z=d,$$for which there's no $lambdainmathbb R$ such that $lambda(2,1,-3,1)=(2b,b,-4b+d,d)$.






                              share|cite|improve this answer

























                                up vote
                                1
                                down vote













                                A plane $P$ is an answer two your question if and only if:



                                1. $P$ isn't the plane $2x+y-3y=1$;

                                2. $rsubset P$.

                                Now, a plane $P$ defined by $ax+by+cz=d$ contains $r$ if and only if $(1,2,1),(2,0,1)in P$. This means that$$left{beginarrayla+2b+c=d\2a+c=d,endarrayright.$$which is equivalent to $a=2b$ and $c=-4b+d$. So, the answer is: the planes of the form$$2bx+by+(-4b+d)z=d,$$for which there's no $lambdainmathbb R$ such that $lambda(2,1,-3,1)=(2b,b,-4b+d,d)$.






                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                  up vote
                                  1
                                  down vote










                                  up vote
                                  1
                                  down vote









                                  A plane $P$ is an answer two your question if and only if:



                                  1. $P$ isn't the plane $2x+y-3y=1$;

                                  2. $rsubset P$.

                                  Now, a plane $P$ defined by $ax+by+cz=d$ contains $r$ if and only if $(1,2,1),(2,0,1)in P$. This means that$$left{beginarrayla+2b+c=d\2a+c=d,endarrayright.$$which is equivalent to $a=2b$ and $c=-4b+d$. So, the answer is: the planes of the form$$2bx+by+(-4b+d)z=d,$$for which there's no $lambdainmathbb R$ such that $lambda(2,1,-3,1)=(2b,b,-4b+d,d)$.






                                  share|cite|improve this answer













                                  A plane $P$ is an answer two your question if and only if:



                                  1. $P$ isn't the plane $2x+y-3y=1$;

                                  2. $rsubset P$.

                                  Now, a plane $P$ defined by $ax+by+cz=d$ contains $r$ if and only if $(1,2,1),(2,0,1)in P$. This means that$$left{beginarrayla+2b+c=d\2a+c=d,endarrayright.$$which is equivalent to $a=2b$ and $c=-4b+d$. So, the answer is: the planes of the form$$2bx+by+(-4b+d)z=d,$$for which there's no $lambdainmathbb R$ such that $lambda(2,1,-3,1)=(2b,b,-4b+d,d)$.







                                  share|cite|improve this answer













                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                  answered Aug 1 at 14:04









                                  José Carlos Santos

                                  112k1696172




                                  112k1696172




















                                      up vote
                                      1
                                      down vote













                                      For the new plane we need that the normal vector $vec n=(a,b,c)$ is orthogonal to the given line that is



                                      $$(a,b,c)cdot (1,-2,0)=0 implies (a,b,c)=(2,1,0)$$



                                      and we obtain



                                      $$2x+y+d=0$$



                                      then we can find $d$ by the condition that $P=(1,2,1)$ belongs to the plane, that is



                                      $$2+2+d=0implies d=-4$$



                                      therefore



                                      $$2x+y-4=0$$



                                      is a possible solution.






                                      share|cite|improve this answer



























                                        up vote
                                        1
                                        down vote













                                        For the new plane we need that the normal vector $vec n=(a,b,c)$ is orthogonal to the given line that is



                                        $$(a,b,c)cdot (1,-2,0)=0 implies (a,b,c)=(2,1,0)$$



                                        and we obtain



                                        $$2x+y+d=0$$



                                        then we can find $d$ by the condition that $P=(1,2,1)$ belongs to the plane, that is



                                        $$2+2+d=0implies d=-4$$



                                        therefore



                                        $$2x+y-4=0$$



                                        is a possible solution.






                                        share|cite|improve this answer

























                                          up vote
                                          1
                                          down vote










                                          up vote
                                          1
                                          down vote









                                          For the new plane we need that the normal vector $vec n=(a,b,c)$ is orthogonal to the given line that is



                                          $$(a,b,c)cdot (1,-2,0)=0 implies (a,b,c)=(2,1,0)$$



                                          and we obtain



                                          $$2x+y+d=0$$



                                          then we can find $d$ by the condition that $P=(1,2,1)$ belongs to the plane, that is



                                          $$2+2+d=0implies d=-4$$



                                          therefore



                                          $$2x+y-4=0$$



                                          is a possible solution.






                                          share|cite|improve this answer















                                          For the new plane we need that the normal vector $vec n=(a,b,c)$ is orthogonal to the given line that is



                                          $$(a,b,c)cdot (1,-2,0)=0 implies (a,b,c)=(2,1,0)$$



                                          and we obtain



                                          $$2x+y+d=0$$



                                          then we can find $d$ by the condition that $P=(1,2,1)$ belongs to the plane, that is



                                          $$2+2+d=0implies d=-4$$



                                          therefore



                                          $$2x+y-4=0$$



                                          is a possible solution.







                                          share|cite|improve this answer















                                          share|cite|improve this answer



                                          share|cite|improve this answer








                                          edited Aug 1 at 14:32


























                                          answered Aug 1 at 13:54









                                          gimusi

                                          63.9k73480




                                          63.9k73480




















                                              up vote
                                              0
                                              down vote













                                              For example, take
                                              $$(x,y,z)=(1,2,1)+t(1,-2,0)+s(1,0,1),$$
                                              which gives $$2x+y-2z-2=0.$$






                                              share|cite|improve this answer

























                                                up vote
                                                0
                                                down vote













                                                For example, take
                                                $$(x,y,z)=(1,2,1)+t(1,-2,0)+s(1,0,1),$$
                                                which gives $$2x+y-2z-2=0.$$






                                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                                  up vote
                                                  0
                                                  down vote










                                                  up vote
                                                  0
                                                  down vote









                                                  For example, take
                                                  $$(x,y,z)=(1,2,1)+t(1,-2,0)+s(1,0,1),$$
                                                  which gives $$2x+y-2z-2=0.$$






                                                  share|cite|improve this answer













                                                  For example, take
                                                  $$(x,y,z)=(1,2,1)+t(1,-2,0)+s(1,0,1),$$
                                                  which gives $$2x+y-2z-2=0.$$







                                                  share|cite|improve this answer













                                                  share|cite|improve this answer



                                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                                  answered Aug 1 at 13:46









                                                  Michael Rozenberg

                                                  87.4k1577179




                                                  87.4k1577179




















                                                      up vote
                                                      0
                                                      down vote













                                                      Try to think geometrically rather than algebraically. You're given a plane $Pi$; think about this plane as determined by a reference point and a normal vector $mathbfn$. You're also given a line $ell$ within that plane; that's determined by a reference point and a direction vector $mathbfv$. Since $ell$ is contained in $Pi$, we can choose the reference points of each to be the same point $P$, and we know that $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are orthogonal.



                                                      We want another plane $Pi'$; again, it's determined by a reference point and normal vector $mathbfn'$. It's required to include $ell$, so it must contain $P$, and $mathbfn'$ must be orthogonal to $mathbfv$ too. We might as well use $P$ as the reference point for $Pi'$. As long as $mathbfn'$ is not parallel to $mathbfn$ (otherwise the planes coincide), their intersection will be $ell$ alone.



                                                      It remains to find a vector $mathbfn'$ that is perpendicular to $mathbfv$ and not parallel to $mathbfn$. Now it's an algebra problem, but let's keep it in terms of vector algebra. There are infinitely many choices, but one convenient one is $mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv$. This is nonzero because $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are nonzero orthogonal vectors, and it's orthogonal to both $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$. In particular, it's not parallel to $mathbfn$.



                                                      Therefore a solution to your problem is the plane through $P$ normal to $mathbfn times mathbfv$, where $P$ is a point on $ell$, $mathbfv$ is a direction vector of $ell$, and $mathbfn$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. And we did this without any messy algebra!



                                                      But you probably need an equation for this plane. Remember $P$ can be any point on $ell$. Since $ell$ is parametrized by a vector function $mathbfr(t)$, a convenient point to call $P$ is the tip of $mathbfr(0)$. That is, let $P = (1,2,1)$. Since $Pi$ has equation $2x + y - 3z = 1$, the vector of coefficients $mathbfn = left<2,1,-3right>$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. Finally, a direction vector $mathbfv$ to $ell$ can be found by taking $mathbfr'(t) = left<1,-2,0right>$. Therefore,
                                                      $$
                                                      mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv = left<-6,-3,-5right>
                                                      $$
                                                      And $Pi'$ has equation
                                                      beginalign*
                                                      -6(x-1) - 3(y-2) - 5(z-1) &= 0
                                                      \implies
                                                      -6x -3y - 5z &= -17
                                                      \implies
                                                      6x + 3y + 5z &= 17
                                                      endalign*






                                                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                                                        up vote
                                                        0
                                                        down vote













                                                        Try to think geometrically rather than algebraically. You're given a plane $Pi$; think about this plane as determined by a reference point and a normal vector $mathbfn$. You're also given a line $ell$ within that plane; that's determined by a reference point and a direction vector $mathbfv$. Since $ell$ is contained in $Pi$, we can choose the reference points of each to be the same point $P$, and we know that $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are orthogonal.



                                                        We want another plane $Pi'$; again, it's determined by a reference point and normal vector $mathbfn'$. It's required to include $ell$, so it must contain $P$, and $mathbfn'$ must be orthogonal to $mathbfv$ too. We might as well use $P$ as the reference point for $Pi'$. As long as $mathbfn'$ is not parallel to $mathbfn$ (otherwise the planes coincide), their intersection will be $ell$ alone.



                                                        It remains to find a vector $mathbfn'$ that is perpendicular to $mathbfv$ and not parallel to $mathbfn$. Now it's an algebra problem, but let's keep it in terms of vector algebra. There are infinitely many choices, but one convenient one is $mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv$. This is nonzero because $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are nonzero orthogonal vectors, and it's orthogonal to both $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$. In particular, it's not parallel to $mathbfn$.



                                                        Therefore a solution to your problem is the plane through $P$ normal to $mathbfn times mathbfv$, where $P$ is a point on $ell$, $mathbfv$ is a direction vector of $ell$, and $mathbfn$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. And we did this without any messy algebra!



                                                        But you probably need an equation for this plane. Remember $P$ can be any point on $ell$. Since $ell$ is parametrized by a vector function $mathbfr(t)$, a convenient point to call $P$ is the tip of $mathbfr(0)$. That is, let $P = (1,2,1)$. Since $Pi$ has equation $2x + y - 3z = 1$, the vector of coefficients $mathbfn = left<2,1,-3right>$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. Finally, a direction vector $mathbfv$ to $ell$ can be found by taking $mathbfr'(t) = left<1,-2,0right>$. Therefore,
                                                        $$
                                                        mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv = left<-6,-3,-5right>
                                                        $$
                                                        And $Pi'$ has equation
                                                        beginalign*
                                                        -6(x-1) - 3(y-2) - 5(z-1) &= 0
                                                        \implies
                                                        -6x -3y - 5z &= -17
                                                        \implies
                                                        6x + 3y + 5z &= 17
                                                        endalign*






                                                        share|cite|improve this answer























                                                          up vote
                                                          0
                                                          down vote










                                                          up vote
                                                          0
                                                          down vote









                                                          Try to think geometrically rather than algebraically. You're given a plane $Pi$; think about this plane as determined by a reference point and a normal vector $mathbfn$. You're also given a line $ell$ within that plane; that's determined by a reference point and a direction vector $mathbfv$. Since $ell$ is contained in $Pi$, we can choose the reference points of each to be the same point $P$, and we know that $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are orthogonal.



                                                          We want another plane $Pi'$; again, it's determined by a reference point and normal vector $mathbfn'$. It's required to include $ell$, so it must contain $P$, and $mathbfn'$ must be orthogonal to $mathbfv$ too. We might as well use $P$ as the reference point for $Pi'$. As long as $mathbfn'$ is not parallel to $mathbfn$ (otherwise the planes coincide), their intersection will be $ell$ alone.



                                                          It remains to find a vector $mathbfn'$ that is perpendicular to $mathbfv$ and not parallel to $mathbfn$. Now it's an algebra problem, but let's keep it in terms of vector algebra. There are infinitely many choices, but one convenient one is $mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv$. This is nonzero because $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are nonzero orthogonal vectors, and it's orthogonal to both $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$. In particular, it's not parallel to $mathbfn$.



                                                          Therefore a solution to your problem is the plane through $P$ normal to $mathbfn times mathbfv$, where $P$ is a point on $ell$, $mathbfv$ is a direction vector of $ell$, and $mathbfn$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. And we did this without any messy algebra!



                                                          But you probably need an equation for this plane. Remember $P$ can be any point on $ell$. Since $ell$ is parametrized by a vector function $mathbfr(t)$, a convenient point to call $P$ is the tip of $mathbfr(0)$. That is, let $P = (1,2,1)$. Since $Pi$ has equation $2x + y - 3z = 1$, the vector of coefficients $mathbfn = left<2,1,-3right>$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. Finally, a direction vector $mathbfv$ to $ell$ can be found by taking $mathbfr'(t) = left<1,-2,0right>$. Therefore,
                                                          $$
                                                          mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv = left<-6,-3,-5right>
                                                          $$
                                                          And $Pi'$ has equation
                                                          beginalign*
                                                          -6(x-1) - 3(y-2) - 5(z-1) &= 0
                                                          \implies
                                                          -6x -3y - 5z &= -17
                                                          \implies
                                                          6x + 3y + 5z &= 17
                                                          endalign*






                                                          share|cite|improve this answer













                                                          Try to think geometrically rather than algebraically. You're given a plane $Pi$; think about this plane as determined by a reference point and a normal vector $mathbfn$. You're also given a line $ell$ within that plane; that's determined by a reference point and a direction vector $mathbfv$. Since $ell$ is contained in $Pi$, we can choose the reference points of each to be the same point $P$, and we know that $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are orthogonal.



                                                          We want another plane $Pi'$; again, it's determined by a reference point and normal vector $mathbfn'$. It's required to include $ell$, so it must contain $P$, and $mathbfn'$ must be orthogonal to $mathbfv$ too. We might as well use $P$ as the reference point for $Pi'$. As long as $mathbfn'$ is not parallel to $mathbfn$ (otherwise the planes coincide), their intersection will be $ell$ alone.



                                                          It remains to find a vector $mathbfn'$ that is perpendicular to $mathbfv$ and not parallel to $mathbfn$. Now it's an algebra problem, but let's keep it in terms of vector algebra. There are infinitely many choices, but one convenient one is $mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv$. This is nonzero because $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$ are nonzero orthogonal vectors, and it's orthogonal to both $mathbfn$ and $mathbfv$. In particular, it's not parallel to $mathbfn$.



                                                          Therefore a solution to your problem is the plane through $P$ normal to $mathbfn times mathbfv$, where $P$ is a point on $ell$, $mathbfv$ is a direction vector of $ell$, and $mathbfn$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. And we did this without any messy algebra!



                                                          But you probably need an equation for this plane. Remember $P$ can be any point on $ell$. Since $ell$ is parametrized by a vector function $mathbfr(t)$, a convenient point to call $P$ is the tip of $mathbfr(0)$. That is, let $P = (1,2,1)$. Since $Pi$ has equation $2x + y - 3z = 1$, the vector of coefficients $mathbfn = left<2,1,-3right>$ is a normal vector to $Pi$. Finally, a direction vector $mathbfv$ to $ell$ can be found by taking $mathbfr'(t) = left<1,-2,0right>$. Therefore,
                                                          $$
                                                          mathbfn' = mathbfn times mathbfv = left<-6,-3,-5right>
                                                          $$
                                                          And $Pi'$ has equation
                                                          beginalign*
                                                          -6(x-1) - 3(y-2) - 5(z-1) &= 0
                                                          \implies
                                                          -6x -3y - 5z &= -17
                                                          \implies
                                                          6x + 3y + 5z &= 17
                                                          endalign*







                                                          share|cite|improve this answer













                                                          share|cite|improve this answer



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                                                          answered Aug 1 at 14:30









                                                          Matthew Leingang

                                                          14.9k12042




                                                          14.9k12042




















                                                              up vote
                                                              0
                                                              down vote













                                                              There are infinitely many such planes e.g. one is the plane itself and the other is the perpendicular plane. If we denote the characteristic vector of the unknown plane by $(a,b,c)$ it's obvious that it should be normal on the characteristic vector of the given line, (1,-2,0) which means that $$a-2b=0$$so the vector is $$(2b,b,c)$$ but the plane also includes (1,2,1) which means that $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$if $bne0$ we have $$2x+y+lambda z=4+lambdaquad,quad lambdainBbb R$$which is one set of planes. The other plane is $z=1$






                                                              share|cite|improve this answer

























                                                                up vote
                                                                0
                                                                down vote













                                                                There are infinitely many such planes e.g. one is the plane itself and the other is the perpendicular plane. If we denote the characteristic vector of the unknown plane by $(a,b,c)$ it's obvious that it should be normal on the characteristic vector of the given line, (1,-2,0) which means that $$a-2b=0$$so the vector is $$(2b,b,c)$$ but the plane also includes (1,2,1) which means that $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$if $bne0$ we have $$2x+y+lambda z=4+lambdaquad,quad lambdainBbb R$$which is one set of planes. The other plane is $z=1$






                                                                share|cite|improve this answer























                                                                  up vote
                                                                  0
                                                                  down vote










                                                                  up vote
                                                                  0
                                                                  down vote









                                                                  There are infinitely many such planes e.g. one is the plane itself and the other is the perpendicular plane. If we denote the characteristic vector of the unknown plane by $(a,b,c)$ it's obvious that it should be normal on the characteristic vector of the given line, (1,-2,0) which means that $$a-2b=0$$so the vector is $$(2b,b,c)$$ but the plane also includes (1,2,1) which means that $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$if $bne0$ we have $$2x+y+lambda z=4+lambdaquad,quad lambdainBbb R$$which is one set of planes. The other plane is $z=1$






                                                                  share|cite|improve this answer













                                                                  There are infinitely many such planes e.g. one is the plane itself and the other is the perpendicular plane. If we denote the characteristic vector of the unknown plane by $(a,b,c)$ it's obvious that it should be normal on the characteristic vector of the given line, (1,-2,0) which means that $$a-2b=0$$so the vector is $$(2b,b,c)$$ but the plane also includes (1,2,1) which means that $$2bx+by+cz=4b+c$$if $bne0$ we have $$2x+y+lambda z=4+lambdaquad,quad lambdainBbb R$$which is one set of planes. The other plane is $z=1$







                                                                  share|cite|improve this answer













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                                                                  share|cite|improve this answer











                                                                  answered Aug 2 at 10:02









                                                                  Mostafa Ayaz

                                                                  8,5183630




                                                                  8,5183630






















                                                                       

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