Prove MB bisects angle IMF

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$Delta ABC$ inscribed $(O)$, incenter $I$, $(I)$ touch $BC$ at $D$. $AD cap (O)=$$A;E$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$ and $N$ be the midpoint of arc $BAC$. Let $EN$ intersect $(BIC)$ at $G$ ($G$ lies in $ABC$). $(AGE) cap (BIC)=$$G;F$. Prove $MB$ bisects $angle IMF$
enter image description here



I have proved $overlineG,D,F$ by using power of a point. I need to prove $I,D,G,M$ concyclic (haven't proved yet), then the problem will be much easier ... Any ideas ?







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    $Delta ABC$ inscribed $(O)$, incenter $I$, $(I)$ touch $BC$ at $D$. $AD cap (O)=$$A;E$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$ and $N$ be the midpoint of arc $BAC$. Let $EN$ intersect $(BIC)$ at $G$ ($G$ lies in $ABC$). $(AGE) cap (BIC)=$$G;F$. Prove $MB$ bisects $angle IMF$
    enter image description here



    I have proved $overlineG,D,F$ by using power of a point. I need to prove $I,D,G,M$ concyclic (haven't proved yet), then the problem will be much easier ... Any ideas ?







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
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      favorite
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      $Delta ABC$ inscribed $(O)$, incenter $I$, $(I)$ touch $BC$ at $D$. $AD cap (O)=$$A;E$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$ and $N$ be the midpoint of arc $BAC$. Let $EN$ intersect $(BIC)$ at $G$ ($G$ lies in $ABC$). $(AGE) cap (BIC)=$$G;F$. Prove $MB$ bisects $angle IMF$
      enter image description here



      I have proved $overlineG,D,F$ by using power of a point. I need to prove $I,D,G,M$ concyclic (haven't proved yet), then the problem will be much easier ... Any ideas ?







      share|cite|improve this question











      $Delta ABC$ inscribed $(O)$, incenter $I$, $(I)$ touch $BC$ at $D$. $AD cap (O)=$$A;E$. Let $M$ be the midpoint of $BC$ and $N$ be the midpoint of arc $BAC$. Let $EN$ intersect $(BIC)$ at $G$ ($G$ lies in $ABC$). $(AGE) cap (BIC)=$$G;F$. Prove $MB$ bisects $angle IMF$
      enter image description here



      I have proved $overlineG,D,F$ by using power of a point. I need to prove $I,D,G,M$ concyclic (haven't proved yet), then the problem will be much easier ... Any ideas ?









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      asked Aug 1 at 6:52









      RopuToran

      976




      976




















          1 Answer
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          Since $angle IDM = 90^0$, IM is the diameter of (IDM). Let L be a point somewhere near F. LI can be drawn tangent to (IDM) at I. Then, $angle IMD = angle LID$.



          enter image description here



          Produce IM to K such that IM = MK. Then, M is the center of the circle passing I, and K cutting MF at H. Note that LI is also tangent to circle (IHK) at I. Then, $angle LIH = angle IKH$.



          Combining the two results, we can say that (1) BDMC // HK and (2) I, D, H are collinear. By midpoint theorem, ID = DH. Required result follows.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I assume you meant $angle LIH=angle IHK$. However, there does seem to be circular logic somewhere. To know that $B$ and $HK$ are parallel, you need to know that $I$, $D$, and $H$ are collinear. And you don't seem to be using how the points are constructed,.
            – Batominovski
            Aug 1 at 16:02










          • @Batominovski No, it is $angle LIH = angle IKH$. Perhaps an added picture can make things more clear. I, D, and H are collinear because of (1); plus $angle IDM = angle IHK = 90^0$; and the two angles are in corresponding positions.
            – Mick
            Aug 1 at 18:52










          • What do you mean "Let L be a point somewhere near F" ?
            – RopuToran
            Aug 2 at 17:46










          • @RopuToran I just want to draw a line that is tangent to the circle IDM touching it at I. That is the blue line. I need to give that tangent line a name and therefore LI. L is also used (in the later stage) for naming some angles. For example, $angle LID$.
            – Mick
            Aug 2 at 18:04










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          1 Answer
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          up vote
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          down vote













          Since $angle IDM = 90^0$, IM is the diameter of (IDM). Let L be a point somewhere near F. LI can be drawn tangent to (IDM) at I. Then, $angle IMD = angle LID$.



          enter image description here



          Produce IM to K such that IM = MK. Then, M is the center of the circle passing I, and K cutting MF at H. Note that LI is also tangent to circle (IHK) at I. Then, $angle LIH = angle IKH$.



          Combining the two results, we can say that (1) BDMC // HK and (2) I, D, H are collinear. By midpoint theorem, ID = DH. Required result follows.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I assume you meant $angle LIH=angle IHK$. However, there does seem to be circular logic somewhere. To know that $B$ and $HK$ are parallel, you need to know that $I$, $D$, and $H$ are collinear. And you don't seem to be using how the points are constructed,.
            – Batominovski
            Aug 1 at 16:02










          • @Batominovski No, it is $angle LIH = angle IKH$. Perhaps an added picture can make things more clear. I, D, and H are collinear because of (1); plus $angle IDM = angle IHK = 90^0$; and the two angles are in corresponding positions.
            – Mick
            Aug 1 at 18:52










          • What do you mean "Let L be a point somewhere near F" ?
            – RopuToran
            Aug 2 at 17:46










          • @RopuToran I just want to draw a line that is tangent to the circle IDM touching it at I. That is the blue line. I need to give that tangent line a name and therefore LI. L is also used (in the later stage) for naming some angles. For example, $angle LID$.
            – Mick
            Aug 2 at 18:04














          up vote
          0
          down vote













          Since $angle IDM = 90^0$, IM is the diameter of (IDM). Let L be a point somewhere near F. LI can be drawn tangent to (IDM) at I. Then, $angle IMD = angle LID$.



          enter image description here



          Produce IM to K such that IM = MK. Then, M is the center of the circle passing I, and K cutting MF at H. Note that LI is also tangent to circle (IHK) at I. Then, $angle LIH = angle IKH$.



          Combining the two results, we can say that (1) BDMC // HK and (2) I, D, H are collinear. By midpoint theorem, ID = DH. Required result follows.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I assume you meant $angle LIH=angle IHK$. However, there does seem to be circular logic somewhere. To know that $B$ and $HK$ are parallel, you need to know that $I$, $D$, and $H$ are collinear. And you don't seem to be using how the points are constructed,.
            – Batominovski
            Aug 1 at 16:02










          • @Batominovski No, it is $angle LIH = angle IKH$. Perhaps an added picture can make things more clear. I, D, and H are collinear because of (1); plus $angle IDM = angle IHK = 90^0$; and the two angles are in corresponding positions.
            – Mick
            Aug 1 at 18:52










          • What do you mean "Let L be a point somewhere near F" ?
            – RopuToran
            Aug 2 at 17:46










          • @RopuToran I just want to draw a line that is tangent to the circle IDM touching it at I. That is the blue line. I need to give that tangent line a name and therefore LI. L is also used (in the later stage) for naming some angles. For example, $angle LID$.
            – Mick
            Aug 2 at 18:04












          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          Since $angle IDM = 90^0$, IM is the diameter of (IDM). Let L be a point somewhere near F. LI can be drawn tangent to (IDM) at I. Then, $angle IMD = angle LID$.



          enter image description here



          Produce IM to K such that IM = MK. Then, M is the center of the circle passing I, and K cutting MF at H. Note that LI is also tangent to circle (IHK) at I. Then, $angle LIH = angle IKH$.



          Combining the two results, we can say that (1) BDMC // HK and (2) I, D, H are collinear. By midpoint theorem, ID = DH. Required result follows.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Since $angle IDM = 90^0$, IM is the diameter of (IDM). Let L be a point somewhere near F. LI can be drawn tangent to (IDM) at I. Then, $angle IMD = angle LID$.



          enter image description here



          Produce IM to K such that IM = MK. Then, M is the center of the circle passing I, and K cutting MF at H. Note that LI is also tangent to circle (IHK) at I. Then, $angle LIH = angle IKH$.



          Combining the two results, we can say that (1) BDMC // HK and (2) I, D, H are collinear. By midpoint theorem, ID = DH. Required result follows.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 1 at 18:56


























          answered Aug 1 at 15:53









          Mick

          11.5k21540




          11.5k21540











          • I assume you meant $angle LIH=angle IHK$. However, there does seem to be circular logic somewhere. To know that $B$ and $HK$ are parallel, you need to know that $I$, $D$, and $H$ are collinear. And you don't seem to be using how the points are constructed,.
            – Batominovski
            Aug 1 at 16:02










          • @Batominovski No, it is $angle LIH = angle IKH$. Perhaps an added picture can make things more clear. I, D, and H are collinear because of (1); plus $angle IDM = angle IHK = 90^0$; and the two angles are in corresponding positions.
            – Mick
            Aug 1 at 18:52










          • What do you mean "Let L be a point somewhere near F" ?
            – RopuToran
            Aug 2 at 17:46










          • @RopuToran I just want to draw a line that is tangent to the circle IDM touching it at I. That is the blue line. I need to give that tangent line a name and therefore LI. L is also used (in the later stage) for naming some angles. For example, $angle LID$.
            – Mick
            Aug 2 at 18:04
















          • I assume you meant $angle LIH=angle IHK$. However, there does seem to be circular logic somewhere. To know that $B$ and $HK$ are parallel, you need to know that $I$, $D$, and $H$ are collinear. And you don't seem to be using how the points are constructed,.
            – Batominovski
            Aug 1 at 16:02










          • @Batominovski No, it is $angle LIH = angle IKH$. Perhaps an added picture can make things more clear. I, D, and H are collinear because of (1); plus $angle IDM = angle IHK = 90^0$; and the two angles are in corresponding positions.
            – Mick
            Aug 1 at 18:52










          • What do you mean "Let L be a point somewhere near F" ?
            – RopuToran
            Aug 2 at 17:46










          • @RopuToran I just want to draw a line that is tangent to the circle IDM touching it at I. That is the blue line. I need to give that tangent line a name and therefore LI. L is also used (in the later stage) for naming some angles. For example, $angle LID$.
            – Mick
            Aug 2 at 18:04















          I assume you meant $angle LIH=angle IHK$. However, there does seem to be circular logic somewhere. To know that $B$ and $HK$ are parallel, you need to know that $I$, $D$, and $H$ are collinear. And you don't seem to be using how the points are constructed,.
          – Batominovski
          Aug 1 at 16:02




          I assume you meant $angle LIH=angle IHK$. However, there does seem to be circular logic somewhere. To know that $B$ and $HK$ are parallel, you need to know that $I$, $D$, and $H$ are collinear. And you don't seem to be using how the points are constructed,.
          – Batominovski
          Aug 1 at 16:02












          @Batominovski No, it is $angle LIH = angle IKH$. Perhaps an added picture can make things more clear. I, D, and H are collinear because of (1); plus $angle IDM = angle IHK = 90^0$; and the two angles are in corresponding positions.
          – Mick
          Aug 1 at 18:52




          @Batominovski No, it is $angle LIH = angle IKH$. Perhaps an added picture can make things more clear. I, D, and H are collinear because of (1); plus $angle IDM = angle IHK = 90^0$; and the two angles are in corresponding positions.
          – Mick
          Aug 1 at 18:52












          What do you mean "Let L be a point somewhere near F" ?
          – RopuToran
          Aug 2 at 17:46




          What do you mean "Let L be a point somewhere near F" ?
          – RopuToran
          Aug 2 at 17:46












          @RopuToran I just want to draw a line that is tangent to the circle IDM touching it at I. That is the blue line. I need to give that tangent line a name and therefore LI. L is also used (in the later stage) for naming some angles. For example, $angle LID$.
          – Mick
          Aug 2 at 18:04




          @RopuToran I just want to draw a line that is tangent to the circle IDM touching it at I. That is the blue line. I need to give that tangent line a name and therefore LI. L is also used (in the later stage) for naming some angles. For example, $angle LID$.
          – Mick
          Aug 2 at 18:04












           

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