A synthetic geometrical proof required on a result regarding Isosceles triangles.

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I need a synthetic proof on this problem without the use of trigonometry.



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Question:

Let $ABC$ be a triangle with $AB=AC$. If $D$ is the midpoint of $BC$, $E$ the foot of perpendicular drawn from $D$ to $AC$ and $F$ the midpoint of $DE$, prove that $AFperp BE$.



The proof is very easy using coordinate geometry.



I'm stuck at: Since point $F$ is midpoint of $DE$, it is fixed and is not a trivial information. But I can't see a way to use this information.







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    up vote
    3
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    I need a synthetic proof on this problem without the use of trigonometry.



    enter image description here
    Question:

    Let $ABC$ be a triangle with $AB=AC$. If $D$ is the midpoint of $BC$, $E$ the foot of perpendicular drawn from $D$ to $AC$ and $F$ the midpoint of $DE$, prove that $AFperp BE$.



    The proof is very easy using coordinate geometry.



    I'm stuck at: Since point $F$ is midpoint of $DE$, it is fixed and is not a trivial information. But I can't see a way to use this information.







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      I need a synthetic proof on this problem without the use of trigonometry.



      enter image description here
      Question:

      Let $ABC$ be a triangle with $AB=AC$. If $D$ is the midpoint of $BC$, $E$ the foot of perpendicular drawn from $D$ to $AC$ and $F$ the midpoint of $DE$, prove that $AFperp BE$.



      The proof is very easy using coordinate geometry.



      I'm stuck at: Since point $F$ is midpoint of $DE$, it is fixed and is not a trivial information. But I can't see a way to use this information.







      share|cite|improve this question













      I need a synthetic proof on this problem without the use of trigonometry.



      enter image description here
      Question:

      Let $ABC$ be a triangle with $AB=AC$. If $D$ is the midpoint of $BC$, $E$ the foot of perpendicular drawn from $D$ to $AC$ and $F$ the midpoint of $DE$, prove that $AFperp BE$.



      The proof is very easy using coordinate geometry.



      I'm stuck at: Since point $F$ is midpoint of $DE$, it is fixed and is not a trivial information. But I can't see a way to use this information.









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 1 at 10:44
























      asked Aug 1 at 10:37









      Love Invariants

      77715




      77715




















          2 Answers
          2






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          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          Let $G$ be a midpoint for $CE$. Then $DG$ is a middle line in triangle $BCE$ so $DG||BE$. Also we see that $FG||DC$ so $FGbot AD$. So $F$ is an orthocenter in triangle $ADG$. So ...






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Nice solution! +1
            – Michael Rozenberg
            Aug 1 at 11:48










          • Really nice solution.
            – Love Invariants
            Aug 1 at 16:05

















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Let $K$ be a midpoint of $BD$.



          Thus, since $$Delta ABDsimDelta DCE,$$ we obtain:
          $$fracABDC=fracBDCE$$ or
          $$frac2ABBC=frac2BKCE$$ or
          $$fracABBC=fracBKCE$$ and since $measuredangle ABK=measuredangle BCE,$ we obtain
          $$Delta ABKsimDelta BCE,$$
          which gives
          $$measuredangle BKA=measuredangle BEC.$$
          Now, let $BEcap AK=L.$



          Thus, $$measuredangle BLA=measuredangle LAE+measuredangle BEA=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BEC=$$
          $$=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BKA=180^circ-90^circ=90^circ.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes








            2 Answers
            2






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted










            Let $G$ be a midpoint for $CE$. Then $DG$ is a middle line in triangle $BCE$ so $DG||BE$. Also we see that $FG||DC$ so $FGbot AD$. So $F$ is an orthocenter in triangle $ADG$. So ...






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Nice solution! +1
              – Michael Rozenberg
              Aug 1 at 11:48










            • Really nice solution.
              – Love Invariants
              Aug 1 at 16:05














            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted










            Let $G$ be a midpoint for $CE$. Then $DG$ is a middle line in triangle $BCE$ so $DG||BE$. Also we see that $FG||DC$ so $FGbot AD$. So $F$ is an orthocenter in triangle $ADG$. So ...






            share|cite|improve this answer





















            • Nice solution! +1
              – Michael Rozenberg
              Aug 1 at 11:48










            • Really nice solution.
              – Love Invariants
              Aug 1 at 16:05












            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted






            Let $G$ be a midpoint for $CE$. Then $DG$ is a middle line in triangle $BCE$ so $DG||BE$. Also we see that $FG||DC$ so $FGbot AD$. So $F$ is an orthocenter in triangle $ADG$. So ...






            share|cite|improve this answer













            Let $G$ be a midpoint for $CE$. Then $DG$ is a middle line in triangle $BCE$ so $DG||BE$. Also we see that $FG||DC$ so $FGbot AD$. So $F$ is an orthocenter in triangle $ADG$. So ...







            share|cite|improve this answer













            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer











            answered Aug 1 at 11:28









            greedoid

            26.1k93473




            26.1k93473











            • Nice solution! +1
              – Michael Rozenberg
              Aug 1 at 11:48










            • Really nice solution.
              – Love Invariants
              Aug 1 at 16:05
















            • Nice solution! +1
              – Michael Rozenberg
              Aug 1 at 11:48










            • Really nice solution.
              – Love Invariants
              Aug 1 at 16:05















            Nice solution! +1
            – Michael Rozenberg
            Aug 1 at 11:48




            Nice solution! +1
            – Michael Rozenberg
            Aug 1 at 11:48












            Really nice solution.
            – Love Invariants
            Aug 1 at 16:05




            Really nice solution.
            – Love Invariants
            Aug 1 at 16:05










            up vote
            1
            down vote













            Let $K$ be a midpoint of $BD$.



            Thus, since $$Delta ABDsimDelta DCE,$$ we obtain:
            $$fracABDC=fracBDCE$$ or
            $$frac2ABBC=frac2BKCE$$ or
            $$fracABBC=fracBKCE$$ and since $measuredangle ABK=measuredangle BCE,$ we obtain
            $$Delta ABKsimDelta BCE,$$
            which gives
            $$measuredangle BKA=measuredangle BEC.$$
            Now, let $BEcap AK=L.$



            Thus, $$measuredangle BLA=measuredangle LAE+measuredangle BEA=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BEC=$$
            $$=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BKA=180^circ-90^circ=90^circ.$$






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              1
              down vote













              Let $K$ be a midpoint of $BD$.



              Thus, since $$Delta ABDsimDelta DCE,$$ we obtain:
              $$fracABDC=fracBDCE$$ or
              $$frac2ABBC=frac2BKCE$$ or
              $$fracABBC=fracBKCE$$ and since $measuredangle ABK=measuredangle BCE,$ we obtain
              $$Delta ABKsimDelta BCE,$$
              which gives
              $$measuredangle BKA=measuredangle BEC.$$
              Now, let $BEcap AK=L.$



              Thus, $$measuredangle BLA=measuredangle LAE+measuredangle BEA=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BEC=$$
              $$=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BKA=180^circ-90^circ=90^circ.$$






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                1
                down vote










                up vote
                1
                down vote









                Let $K$ be a midpoint of $BD$.



                Thus, since $$Delta ABDsimDelta DCE,$$ we obtain:
                $$fracABDC=fracBDCE$$ or
                $$frac2ABBC=frac2BKCE$$ or
                $$fracABBC=fracBKCE$$ and since $measuredangle ABK=measuredangle BCE,$ we obtain
                $$Delta ABKsimDelta BCE,$$
                which gives
                $$measuredangle BKA=measuredangle BEC.$$
                Now, let $BEcap AK=L.$



                Thus, $$measuredangle BLA=measuredangle LAE+measuredangle BEA=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BEC=$$
                $$=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BKA=180^circ-90^circ=90^circ.$$






                share|cite|improve this answer













                Let $K$ be a midpoint of $BD$.



                Thus, since $$Delta ABDsimDelta DCE,$$ we obtain:
                $$fracABDC=fracBDCE$$ or
                $$frac2ABBC=frac2BKCE$$ or
                $$fracABBC=fracBKCE$$ and since $measuredangle ABK=measuredangle BCE,$ we obtain
                $$Delta ABKsimDelta BCE,$$
                which gives
                $$measuredangle BKA=measuredangle BEC.$$
                Now, let $BEcap AK=L.$



                Thus, $$measuredangle BLA=measuredangle LAE+measuredangle BEA=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BEC=$$
                $$=measuredangle KAD+180^circ-measuredangle BKA=180^circ-90^circ=90^circ.$$







                share|cite|improve this answer













                share|cite|improve this answer



                share|cite|improve this answer











                answered Aug 1 at 11:36









                Michael Rozenberg

                87.4k1577179




                87.4k1577179






















                     

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