Extending a morphism to a projective scheme

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let $C$ be a reduced affine Noetherian scheme of pure dimension 1 (all its irreducible components have dimension 1) and $p in C$ a regular closed point. Suppose we have a morphism $C backslash p to mathbbP^n$ that lies in a closed subscheme $Y subseteq mathbbP^n$. If this morphism extends to $C to mathbbP^n$, is it true that this extension must factor through $Y$?



Here's my proof. Since $p$ is a closed point, $p in C' subset C$ some irreducible component of $C$, necessarily of dimension 1. Note $C'$ is an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 and $pi^-1(Y) cap C'$ is a closed subset of $C'$ containing $C' backslash p$. However, any proper closed subset of an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 must have dimension 0 and thus be finite. But $C'$ is infinite as it has dimension 1 so $pi^-1(Y) cap C' = C'$ and hence $pi^-1(Y) ni p$. Now, since $C$ is reduced the schematic image is the closure of the image, but the image is contained in $Y$, and $Y$ is closed in $mathbbP^n$ and we conclude the schematic image of $C$ is contained in $Y$.







share|cite|improve this question























    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    Let $C$ be a reduced affine Noetherian scheme of pure dimension 1 (all its irreducible components have dimension 1) and $p in C$ a regular closed point. Suppose we have a morphism $C backslash p to mathbbP^n$ that lies in a closed subscheme $Y subseteq mathbbP^n$. If this morphism extends to $C to mathbbP^n$, is it true that this extension must factor through $Y$?



    Here's my proof. Since $p$ is a closed point, $p in C' subset C$ some irreducible component of $C$, necessarily of dimension 1. Note $C'$ is an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 and $pi^-1(Y) cap C'$ is a closed subset of $C'$ containing $C' backslash p$. However, any proper closed subset of an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 must have dimension 0 and thus be finite. But $C'$ is infinite as it has dimension 1 so $pi^-1(Y) cap C' = C'$ and hence $pi^-1(Y) ni p$. Now, since $C$ is reduced the schematic image is the closure of the image, but the image is contained in $Y$, and $Y$ is closed in $mathbbP^n$ and we conclude the schematic image of $C$ is contained in $Y$.







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $C$ be a reduced affine Noetherian scheme of pure dimension 1 (all its irreducible components have dimension 1) and $p in C$ a regular closed point. Suppose we have a morphism $C backslash p to mathbbP^n$ that lies in a closed subscheme $Y subseteq mathbbP^n$. If this morphism extends to $C to mathbbP^n$, is it true that this extension must factor through $Y$?



      Here's my proof. Since $p$ is a closed point, $p in C' subset C$ some irreducible component of $C$, necessarily of dimension 1. Note $C'$ is an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 and $pi^-1(Y) cap C'$ is a closed subset of $C'$ containing $C' backslash p$. However, any proper closed subset of an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 must have dimension 0 and thus be finite. But $C'$ is infinite as it has dimension 1 so $pi^-1(Y) cap C' = C'$ and hence $pi^-1(Y) ni p$. Now, since $C$ is reduced the schematic image is the closure of the image, but the image is contained in $Y$, and $Y$ is closed in $mathbbP^n$ and we conclude the schematic image of $C$ is contained in $Y$.







      share|cite|improve this question











      Let $C$ be a reduced affine Noetherian scheme of pure dimension 1 (all its irreducible components have dimension 1) and $p in C$ a regular closed point. Suppose we have a morphism $C backslash p to mathbbP^n$ that lies in a closed subscheme $Y subseteq mathbbP^n$. If this morphism extends to $C to mathbbP^n$, is it true that this extension must factor through $Y$?



      Here's my proof. Since $p$ is a closed point, $p in C' subset C$ some irreducible component of $C$, necessarily of dimension 1. Note $C'$ is an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 and $pi^-1(Y) cap C'$ is a closed subset of $C'$ containing $C' backslash p$. However, any proper closed subset of an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 must have dimension 0 and thus be finite. But $C'$ is infinite as it has dimension 1 so $pi^-1(Y) cap C' = C'$ and hence $pi^-1(Y) ni p$. Now, since $C$ is reduced the schematic image is the closure of the image, but the image is contained in $Y$, and $Y$ is closed in $mathbbP^n$ and we conclude the schematic image of $C$ is contained in $Y$.









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Jul 26 at 19:13









      ggg

      435313




      435313




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06










          Your Answer




          StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
          return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
          StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
          StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
          );
          );
          , "mathjax-editing");

          StackExchange.ready(function()
          var channelOptions =
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "69"
          ;
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
          createEditor();
          );

          else
          createEditor();

          );

          function createEditor()
          StackExchange.prepareEditor(
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          convertImagesToLinks: true,
          noModals: false,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: 10,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          );



          );








           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2863716%2fextending-a-morphism-to-a-projective-scheme%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest






























          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 26 at 20:37









          KReiser

          7,47011230




          7,47011230











          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06
















          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06















          You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
          – ggg
          Jul 26 at 21:06




          You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
          – ggg
          Jul 26 at 21:06




          1




          1




          The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
          – KReiser
          Jul 26 at 21:12




          The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
          – KReiser
          Jul 26 at 21:12












          Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
          – ggg
          Jul 26 at 22:06




          Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
          – ggg
          Jul 26 at 22:06












           

          draft saved


          draft discarded


























           


          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function ()
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2863716%2fextending-a-morphism-to-a-projective-scheme%23new-answer', 'question_page');

          );

          Post as a guest













































































          Comments

          Popular posts from this blog

          Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

          Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?

          What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?