Extending a morphism to a projective scheme

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Let $C$ be a reduced affine Noetherian scheme of pure dimension 1 (all its irreducible components have dimension 1) and $p in C$ a regular closed point. Suppose we have a morphism $C backslash p to mathbbP^n$ that lies in a closed subscheme $Y subseteq mathbbP^n$. If this morphism extends to $C to mathbbP^n$, is it true that this extension must factor through $Y$?



Here's my proof. Since $p$ is a closed point, $p in C' subset C$ some irreducible component of $C$, necessarily of dimension 1. Note $C'$ is an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 and $pi^-1(Y) cap C'$ is a closed subset of $C'$ containing $C' backslash p$. However, any proper closed subset of an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 must have dimension 0 and thus be finite. But $C'$ is infinite as it has dimension 1 so $pi^-1(Y) cap C' = C'$ and hence $pi^-1(Y) ni p$. Now, since $C$ is reduced the schematic image is the closure of the image, but the image is contained in $Y$, and $Y$ is closed in $mathbbP^n$ and we conclude the schematic image of $C$ is contained in $Y$.







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    Let $C$ be a reduced affine Noetherian scheme of pure dimension 1 (all its irreducible components have dimension 1) and $p in C$ a regular closed point. Suppose we have a morphism $C backslash p to mathbbP^n$ that lies in a closed subscheme $Y subseteq mathbbP^n$. If this morphism extends to $C to mathbbP^n$, is it true that this extension must factor through $Y$?



    Here's my proof. Since $p$ is a closed point, $p in C' subset C$ some irreducible component of $C$, necessarily of dimension 1. Note $C'$ is an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 and $pi^-1(Y) cap C'$ is a closed subset of $C'$ containing $C' backslash p$. However, any proper closed subset of an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 must have dimension 0 and thus be finite. But $C'$ is infinite as it has dimension 1 so $pi^-1(Y) cap C' = C'$ and hence $pi^-1(Y) ni p$. Now, since $C$ is reduced the schematic image is the closure of the image, but the image is contained in $Y$, and $Y$ is closed in $mathbbP^n$ and we conclude the schematic image of $C$ is contained in $Y$.







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      Let $C$ be a reduced affine Noetherian scheme of pure dimension 1 (all its irreducible components have dimension 1) and $p in C$ a regular closed point. Suppose we have a morphism $C backslash p to mathbbP^n$ that lies in a closed subscheme $Y subseteq mathbbP^n$. If this morphism extends to $C to mathbbP^n$, is it true that this extension must factor through $Y$?



      Here's my proof. Since $p$ is a closed point, $p in C' subset C$ some irreducible component of $C$, necessarily of dimension 1. Note $C'$ is an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 and $pi^-1(Y) cap C'$ is a closed subset of $C'$ containing $C' backslash p$. However, any proper closed subset of an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 must have dimension 0 and thus be finite. But $C'$ is infinite as it has dimension 1 so $pi^-1(Y) cap C' = C'$ and hence $pi^-1(Y) ni p$. Now, since $C$ is reduced the schematic image is the closure of the image, but the image is contained in $Y$, and $Y$ is closed in $mathbbP^n$ and we conclude the schematic image of $C$ is contained in $Y$.







      share|cite|improve this question











      Let $C$ be a reduced affine Noetherian scheme of pure dimension 1 (all its irreducible components have dimension 1) and $p in C$ a regular closed point. Suppose we have a morphism $C backslash p to mathbbP^n$ that lies in a closed subscheme $Y subseteq mathbbP^n$. If this morphism extends to $C to mathbbP^n$, is it true that this extension must factor through $Y$?



      Here's my proof. Since $p$ is a closed point, $p in C' subset C$ some irreducible component of $C$, necessarily of dimension 1. Note $C'$ is an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 and $pi^-1(Y) cap C'$ is a closed subset of $C'$ containing $C' backslash p$. However, any proper closed subset of an irreducible Noetherian topological space of dimension 1 must have dimension 0 and thus be finite. But $C'$ is infinite as it has dimension 1 so $pi^-1(Y) cap C' = C'$ and hence $pi^-1(Y) ni p$. Now, since $C$ is reduced the schematic image is the closure of the image, but the image is contained in $Y$, and $Y$ is closed in $mathbbP^n$ and we conclude the schematic image of $C$ is contained in $Y$.









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      asked Jul 26 at 19:13









      ggg

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          1 Answer
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          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06










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          1 Answer
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          1 Answer
          1






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          active

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          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Yes, this is fine - it may be quicker to note that morphisms of schemes are continuous and that $f(overlineX)subset overlinef(X)$ for a continuous map of topological spaces $f:Sto T$ and $Xsubset S$.



          For other extension problems about morphisms of schemes, you may wish to look up the notions of separated and proper.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 26 at 20:37









          KReiser

          7,47011230




          7,47011230











          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06
















          • You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 21:06






          • 1




            The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
            – KReiser
            Jul 26 at 21:12










          • Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
            – ggg
            Jul 26 at 22:06















          You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
          – ggg
          Jul 26 at 21:06




          You're right, that is faster, but don't we need something to ensure that $overlineC backslash p = C$ (e.g. $C$ is connected)? I don't mean to be overly technical but most of my wariness about this is that I don't understand the topology of a pure dimension 1 Noetherian scheme if it's not irreducible.
          – ggg
          Jul 26 at 21:06




          1




          1




          The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
          – KReiser
          Jul 26 at 21:12




          The assumption that $C$ has no irreducible components of dimension $0$ is enough to guarantee that $overlineCsetminusp=C$. All you need is that $Csetminusp$ is dense in $C$, which is clear - $Csetminusp$ is an open set which intersects each irreducible component nontrivially (here's where we use no dimension $0$ components), and every nontrivial open subset of an irreducible set is dense.
          – KReiser
          Jul 26 at 21:12












          Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
          – ggg
          Jul 26 at 22:06




          Ah yes, so $C backslash p $ being dense is already forced by the assumptions. Thank you!
          – ggg
          Jul 26 at 22:06












           

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