Fredholmness of formal selfadjoint operator $AA^*$ and Fredholmenss of $A$.
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
Let $X$ and $Y$ be Hilbert spaces with respective inner products $langle , rangle_X,Y$. Let $A:X rightarrow Y$ be a bounded linear operator. Assume there is a non-degenerate sesquilinear product $(,)$ on $Y$. Take $y in Y$, and define the map
$l_y : x' in X mapsto (A x', y)$.
Assume this last map is bounded, then by Riesz's theorem, there exists a unique $x in X$ such that $l_y(x') = langle x' ,x rangle_X$. We define the formal adjoint of $A$, denoted as $A^*$ by $A^*(y) = x$. Note that this coincides with the adjoint of $A$ when $(,) = langle , rangle_Y$.
Is it true that if $AA^*$ is a Fredholm operator then $A$ is Fredholm as well?
A particular case I am interested take $d: L^2_k(mathbbR) rightarrow L^2_k-1(mathbbR)$ (where $L^2_k$ denotes the Sobolev space with $k$ weak derivatives in $L^2$) and take $(,)$ as the $L^2(mathbbR)$ inner product.
real-analysis functional-analysis
This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from inquisitor ending ending at 2018-08-13 16:24:34Z">in 2 days.
Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.
 |Â
show 2 more comments
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
Let $X$ and $Y$ be Hilbert spaces with respective inner products $langle , rangle_X,Y$. Let $A:X rightarrow Y$ be a bounded linear operator. Assume there is a non-degenerate sesquilinear product $(,)$ on $Y$. Take $y in Y$, and define the map
$l_y : x' in X mapsto (A x', y)$.
Assume this last map is bounded, then by Riesz's theorem, there exists a unique $x in X$ such that $l_y(x') = langle x' ,x rangle_X$. We define the formal adjoint of $A$, denoted as $A^*$ by $A^*(y) = x$. Note that this coincides with the adjoint of $A$ when $(,) = langle , rangle_Y$.
Is it true that if $AA^*$ is a Fredholm operator then $A$ is Fredholm as well?
A particular case I am interested take $d: L^2_k(mathbbR) rightarrow L^2_k-1(mathbbR)$ (where $L^2_k$ denotes the Sobolev space with $k$ weak derivatives in $L^2$) and take $(,)$ as the $L^2(mathbbR)$ inner product.
real-analysis functional-analysis
This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from inquisitor ending ending at 2018-08-13 16:24:34Z">in 2 days.
Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.
What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:19
I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:28
- Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:37
yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:46
You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 9:16
 |Â
show 2 more comments
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
up vote
4
down vote
favorite
Let $X$ and $Y$ be Hilbert spaces with respective inner products $langle , rangle_X,Y$. Let $A:X rightarrow Y$ be a bounded linear operator. Assume there is a non-degenerate sesquilinear product $(,)$ on $Y$. Take $y in Y$, and define the map
$l_y : x' in X mapsto (A x', y)$.
Assume this last map is bounded, then by Riesz's theorem, there exists a unique $x in X$ such that $l_y(x') = langle x' ,x rangle_X$. We define the formal adjoint of $A$, denoted as $A^*$ by $A^*(y) = x$. Note that this coincides with the adjoint of $A$ when $(,) = langle , rangle_Y$.
Is it true that if $AA^*$ is a Fredholm operator then $A$ is Fredholm as well?
A particular case I am interested take $d: L^2_k(mathbbR) rightarrow L^2_k-1(mathbbR)$ (where $L^2_k$ denotes the Sobolev space with $k$ weak derivatives in $L^2$) and take $(,)$ as the $L^2(mathbbR)$ inner product.
real-analysis functional-analysis
Let $X$ and $Y$ be Hilbert spaces with respective inner products $langle , rangle_X,Y$. Let $A:X rightarrow Y$ be a bounded linear operator. Assume there is a non-degenerate sesquilinear product $(,)$ on $Y$. Take $y in Y$, and define the map
$l_y : x' in X mapsto (A x', y)$.
Assume this last map is bounded, then by Riesz's theorem, there exists a unique $x in X$ such that $l_y(x') = langle x' ,x rangle_X$. We define the formal adjoint of $A$, denoted as $A^*$ by $A^*(y) = x$. Note that this coincides with the adjoint of $A$ when $(,) = langle , rangle_Y$.
Is it true that if $AA^*$ is a Fredholm operator then $A$ is Fredholm as well?
A particular case I am interested take $d: L^2_k(mathbbR) rightarrow L^2_k-1(mathbbR)$ (where $L^2_k$ denotes the Sobolev space with $k$ weak derivatives in $L^2$) and take $(,)$ as the $L^2(mathbbR)$ inner product.
real-analysis functional-analysis
edited Jul 27 at 10:02
asked Jul 27 at 7:40
inquisitor
699621
699621
This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from inquisitor ending ending at 2018-08-13 16:24:34Z">in 2 days.
Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.
This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from inquisitor ending ending at 2018-08-13 16:24:34Z">in 2 days.
Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.
What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:19
I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:28
- Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:37
yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:46
You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 9:16
 |Â
show 2 more comments
What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:19
I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:28
- Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:37
yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:46
You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 9:16
What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:19
What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:19
I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:28
I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:28
- Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:37
- Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:37
yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:46
yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:46
You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 9:16
You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 9:16
 |Â
show 2 more comments
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
StackExchange.ready(
function ()
StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2864150%2ffredholmness-of-formal-selfadjoint-operator-aa-and-fredholmenss-of-a%23new-answer', 'question_page');
);
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Post as a guest
Sign up or log in
StackExchange.ready(function ()
StackExchange.helpers.onClickDraftSave('#login-link');
);
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
Sign up using Google
Sign up using Facebook
Sign up using Email and Password
What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:19
I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:28
- Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:37
yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:46
You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 9:16