Fredholmness of formal selfadjoint operator $AA^*$ and Fredholmenss of $A$.

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Let $X$ and $Y$ be Hilbert spaces with respective inner products $langle , rangle_X,Y$. Let $A:X rightarrow Y$ be a bounded linear operator. Assume there is a non-degenerate sesquilinear product $(,)$ on $Y$. Take $y in Y$, and define the map
$l_y : x' in X mapsto (A x', y)$.
Assume this last map is bounded, then by Riesz's theorem, there exists a unique $x in X$ such that $l_y(x') = langle x' ,x rangle_X$. We define the formal adjoint of $A$, denoted as $A^*$ by $A^*(y) = x$. Note that this coincides with the adjoint of $A$ when $(,) = langle , rangle_Y$.



Is it true that if $AA^*$ is a Fredholm operator then $A$ is Fredholm as well?



A particular case I am interested take $d: L^2_k(mathbbR) rightarrow L^2_k-1(mathbbR)$ (where $L^2_k$ denotes the Sobolev space with $k$ weak derivatives in $L^2$) and take $(,)$ as the $L^2(mathbbR)$ inner product.







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  • What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 8:19










  • I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
    – inquisitor
    Jul 27 at 8:28











  • - Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 8:37











  • yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
    – inquisitor
    Jul 27 at 8:46











  • You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 9:16















up vote
4
down vote

favorite












Let $X$ and $Y$ be Hilbert spaces with respective inner products $langle , rangle_X,Y$. Let $A:X rightarrow Y$ be a bounded linear operator. Assume there is a non-degenerate sesquilinear product $(,)$ on $Y$. Take $y in Y$, and define the map
$l_y : x' in X mapsto (A x', y)$.
Assume this last map is bounded, then by Riesz's theorem, there exists a unique $x in X$ such that $l_y(x') = langle x' ,x rangle_X$. We define the formal adjoint of $A$, denoted as $A^*$ by $A^*(y) = x$. Note that this coincides with the adjoint of $A$ when $(,) = langle , rangle_Y$.



Is it true that if $AA^*$ is a Fredholm operator then $A$ is Fredholm as well?



A particular case I am interested take $d: L^2_k(mathbbR) rightarrow L^2_k-1(mathbbR)$ (where $L^2_k$ denotes the Sobolev space with $k$ weak derivatives in $L^2$) and take $(,)$ as the $L^2(mathbbR)$ inner product.







share|cite|improve this question















This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from inquisitor ending ending at 2018-08-13 16:24:34Z">in 2 days.


Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.















  • What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 8:19










  • I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
    – inquisitor
    Jul 27 at 8:28











  • - Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 8:37











  • yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
    – inquisitor
    Jul 27 at 8:46











  • You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 9:16













up vote
4
down vote

favorite









up vote
4
down vote

favorite











Let $X$ and $Y$ be Hilbert spaces with respective inner products $langle , rangle_X,Y$. Let $A:X rightarrow Y$ be a bounded linear operator. Assume there is a non-degenerate sesquilinear product $(,)$ on $Y$. Take $y in Y$, and define the map
$l_y : x' in X mapsto (A x', y)$.
Assume this last map is bounded, then by Riesz's theorem, there exists a unique $x in X$ such that $l_y(x') = langle x' ,x rangle_X$. We define the formal adjoint of $A$, denoted as $A^*$ by $A^*(y) = x$. Note that this coincides with the adjoint of $A$ when $(,) = langle , rangle_Y$.



Is it true that if $AA^*$ is a Fredholm operator then $A$ is Fredholm as well?



A particular case I am interested take $d: L^2_k(mathbbR) rightarrow L^2_k-1(mathbbR)$ (where $L^2_k$ denotes the Sobolev space with $k$ weak derivatives in $L^2$) and take $(,)$ as the $L^2(mathbbR)$ inner product.







share|cite|improve this question













Let $X$ and $Y$ be Hilbert spaces with respective inner products $langle , rangle_X,Y$. Let $A:X rightarrow Y$ be a bounded linear operator. Assume there is a non-degenerate sesquilinear product $(,)$ on $Y$. Take $y in Y$, and define the map
$l_y : x' in X mapsto (A x', y)$.
Assume this last map is bounded, then by Riesz's theorem, there exists a unique $x in X$ such that $l_y(x') = langle x' ,x rangle_X$. We define the formal adjoint of $A$, denoted as $A^*$ by $A^*(y) = x$. Note that this coincides with the adjoint of $A$ when $(,) = langle , rangle_Y$.



Is it true that if $AA^*$ is a Fredholm operator then $A$ is Fredholm as well?



A particular case I am interested take $d: L^2_k(mathbbR) rightarrow L^2_k-1(mathbbR)$ (where $L^2_k$ denotes the Sobolev space with $k$ weak derivatives in $L^2$) and take $(,)$ as the $L^2(mathbbR)$ inner product.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




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edited Jul 27 at 10:02
























asked Jul 27 at 7:40









inquisitor

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This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from inquisitor ending ending at 2018-08-13 16:24:34Z">in 2 days.


Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.








This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from inquisitor ending ending at 2018-08-13 16:24:34Z">in 2 days.


Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.













  • What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 8:19










  • I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
    – inquisitor
    Jul 27 at 8:28











  • - Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 8:37











  • yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
    – inquisitor
    Jul 27 at 8:46











  • You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 9:16

















  • What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 8:19










  • I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
    – inquisitor
    Jul 27 at 8:28











  • - Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 8:37











  • yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
    – inquisitor
    Jul 27 at 8:46











  • You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
    – Jan Bohr
    Jul 27 at 9:16
















What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:19




What do you mean by formal adjoint of $A$ in this context?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:19












I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:28





I mean in the sense of the second line, the one that satisfies: $int_X (Bf,g) = int_X (f,B^*g)$ for all $f, g$, where $(cdot, cdot)$ is a non-degenerate bilinear (or complex in one variable in case it maps to $mathbbC$) map. I guess I am assuming that it exists. But solving it for the specific case of the $A$ given above would be already helpful. thanks
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:28













- Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:37





- Why do you make a difference between adjoint and formal adjoint? - Don't you mean $(f,g)=bar f g$? Or do you want another inner product? - What is $L^2_1$?
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 8:37













yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:46





yes, I meant that one, I should have specified that (I have edited it now). $L^2_1$ is the Sobolev space with a first weak derivative in $L^2$
– inquisitor
Jul 27 at 8:46













You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 9:16





You still have to say what you mean by formal adjoint and whether $A^*$ is different from $A'$.
– Jan Bohr
Jul 27 at 9:16
















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