If $C$ is a closed subset of a metric space, then $barB(C, r)$ is a closed subset also?
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Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $C$ be a closed subset of $X$. Let $barB(C, r) := exists c in C textits.t. d(x, c)≤r $. Then is $barB(C, r)$ a closed subset also?
Is the statement true if $X$ is a normed vector space over $mathbbR$ and $C$ is a closed, bounded convex subset of $X$?
real-analysis general-topology functional-analysis metric-spaces normed-spaces
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Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $C$ be a closed subset of $X$. Let $barB(C, r) := exists c in C textits.t. d(x, c)≤r $. Then is $barB(C, r)$ a closed subset also?
Is the statement true if $X$ is a normed vector space over $mathbbR$ and $C$ is a closed, bounded convex subset of $X$?
real-analysis general-topology functional-analysis metric-spaces normed-spaces
Let $C=y_1,y_2,...$ be such that the distance between any two of its elements if $1$. Let $x_1,x_2,...$ be such that $d(x_i,y_j)=2$, for all $i,j$, $d(x_i,x_j)=1$ for $ineq j$. Let $x_0$ be such that $d(x_0,x_i)=1+1/i$, $d(x_0,y_i)=2+1/i$.
– user578878
Jul 27 at 12:53
No - simple counterexample in the answer below. It's true if you assume $C$ is compact.
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 27 at 16:01
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up vote
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down vote
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up vote
3
down vote
favorite
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $C$ be a closed subset of $X$. Let $barB(C, r) := exists c in C textits.t. d(x, c)≤r $. Then is $barB(C, r)$ a closed subset also?
Is the statement true if $X$ is a normed vector space over $mathbbR$ and $C$ is a closed, bounded convex subset of $X$?
real-analysis general-topology functional-analysis metric-spaces normed-spaces
Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space and $C$ be a closed subset of $X$. Let $barB(C, r) := exists c in C textits.t. d(x, c)≤r $. Then is $barB(C, r)$ a closed subset also?
Is the statement true if $X$ is a normed vector space over $mathbbR$ and $C$ is a closed, bounded convex subset of $X$?
real-analysis general-topology functional-analysis metric-spaces normed-spaces
asked Jul 27 at 12:17
GouldBach
3368
3368
Let $C=y_1,y_2,...$ be such that the distance between any two of its elements if $1$. Let $x_1,x_2,...$ be such that $d(x_i,y_j)=2$, for all $i,j$, $d(x_i,x_j)=1$ for $ineq j$. Let $x_0$ be such that $d(x_0,x_i)=1+1/i$, $d(x_0,y_i)=2+1/i$.
– user578878
Jul 27 at 12:53
No - simple counterexample in the answer below. It's true if you assume $C$ is compact.
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 27 at 16:01
add a comment |Â
Let $C=y_1,y_2,...$ be such that the distance between any two of its elements if $1$. Let $x_1,x_2,...$ be such that $d(x_i,y_j)=2$, for all $i,j$, $d(x_i,x_j)=1$ for $ineq j$. Let $x_0$ be such that $d(x_0,x_i)=1+1/i$, $d(x_0,y_i)=2+1/i$.
– user578878
Jul 27 at 12:53
No - simple counterexample in the answer below. It's true if you assume $C$ is compact.
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 27 at 16:01
Let $C=y_1,y_2,...$ be such that the distance between any two of its elements if $1$. Let $x_1,x_2,...$ be such that $d(x_i,y_j)=2$, for all $i,j$, $d(x_i,x_j)=1$ for $ineq j$. Let $x_0$ be such that $d(x_0,x_i)=1+1/i$, $d(x_0,y_i)=2+1/i$.
– user578878
Jul 27 at 12:53
Let $C=y_1,y_2,...$ be such that the distance between any two of its elements if $1$. Let $x_1,x_2,...$ be such that $d(x_i,y_j)=2$, for all $i,j$, $d(x_i,x_j)=1$ for $ineq j$. Let $x_0$ be such that $d(x_0,x_i)=1+1/i$, $d(x_0,y_i)=2+1/i$.
– user578878
Jul 27 at 12:53
No - simple counterexample in the answer below. It's true if you assume $C$ is compact.
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 27 at 16:01
No - simple counterexample in the answer below. It's true if you assume $C$ is compact.
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 27 at 16:01
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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Oberve the space $X=mathbb R-0$ equipped with subspace topology inherited from $mathbb R$.
Then $C:=(0,infty)$ is a closed subset.
But $overline B(C,1)=(-1,infty)setminus0$ is not closed.
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Oberve the space $X=mathbb R-0$ equipped with subspace topology inherited from $mathbb R$.
Then $C:=(0,infty)$ is a closed subset.
But $overline B(C,1)=(-1,infty)setminus0$ is not closed.
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Oberve the space $X=mathbb R-0$ equipped with subspace topology inherited from $mathbb R$.
Then $C:=(0,infty)$ is a closed subset.
But $overline B(C,1)=(-1,infty)setminus0$ is not closed.
add a comment |Â
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
up vote
5
down vote
accepted
Oberve the space $X=mathbb R-0$ equipped with subspace topology inherited from $mathbb R$.
Then $C:=(0,infty)$ is a closed subset.
But $overline B(C,1)=(-1,infty)setminus0$ is not closed.
Oberve the space $X=mathbb R-0$ equipped with subspace topology inherited from $mathbb R$.
Then $C:=(0,infty)$ is a closed subset.
But $overline B(C,1)=(-1,infty)setminus0$ is not closed.
answered Jul 27 at 12:52


drhab
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Let $C=y_1,y_2,...$ be such that the distance between any two of its elements if $1$. Let $x_1,x_2,...$ be such that $d(x_i,y_j)=2$, for all $i,j$, $d(x_i,x_j)=1$ for $ineq j$. Let $x_0$ be such that $d(x_0,x_i)=1+1/i$, $d(x_0,y_i)=2+1/i$.
– user578878
Jul 27 at 12:53
No - simple counterexample in the answer below. It's true if you assume $C$ is compact.
– David C. Ullrich
Jul 27 at 16:01