Let $f:Eto F$ be linear, then prove that if $E=ker foplus H$, then $H$ is isomorphic to $operatornameIm f$

The name of the pictureThe name of the pictureThe name of the pictureClash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP











up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $f:Eto F$ be linear where $E,F$ are vector spaces and $dim E<infty$. Let $H$ be such that $E=ker foplus H$, then I wish to prove that $H $ is isomorphic to $ operatornameIm f.$



Here is what I have done:



If $f:Eto F$ is linear and $dim E<infty$, then $$dim E=dim ker f+dim operatornameIm f. ;;;;;(1)$$ Since $E=ker foplus H$, then by formula of four-dimension $$dim E=dim ker f+dim H. ;;;;;(2)$$
From $(1)$ and $(2)$, we have that
$$dim H=dim operatornameIm f.$$
Then, $H $ is isomorphic to $ operatornameIm f.$ Please, I'm I right or wrong? If no, I would love to see better solutions.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • @hardmath: My apologies for that!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 16:54














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $f:Eto F$ be linear where $E,F$ are vector spaces and $dim E<infty$. Let $H$ be such that $E=ker foplus H$, then I wish to prove that $H $ is isomorphic to $ operatornameIm f.$



Here is what I have done:



If $f:Eto F$ is linear and $dim E<infty$, then $$dim E=dim ker f+dim operatornameIm f. ;;;;;(1)$$ Since $E=ker foplus H$, then by formula of four-dimension $$dim E=dim ker f+dim H. ;;;;;(2)$$
From $(1)$ and $(2)$, we have that
$$dim H=dim operatornameIm f.$$
Then, $H $ is isomorphic to $ operatornameIm f.$ Please, I'm I right or wrong? If no, I would love to see better solutions.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • @hardmath: My apologies for that!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 16:54












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $f:Eto F$ be linear where $E,F$ are vector spaces and $dim E<infty$. Let $H$ be such that $E=ker foplus H$, then I wish to prove that $H $ is isomorphic to $ operatornameIm f.$



Here is what I have done:



If $f:Eto F$ is linear and $dim E<infty$, then $$dim E=dim ker f+dim operatornameIm f. ;;;;;(1)$$ Since $E=ker foplus H$, then by formula of four-dimension $$dim E=dim ker f+dim H. ;;;;;(2)$$
From $(1)$ and $(2)$, we have that
$$dim H=dim operatornameIm f.$$
Then, $H $ is isomorphic to $ operatornameIm f.$ Please, I'm I right or wrong? If no, I would love to see better solutions.







share|cite|improve this question













Let $f:Eto F$ be linear where $E,F$ are vector spaces and $dim E<infty$. Let $H$ be such that $E=ker foplus H$, then I wish to prove that $H $ is isomorphic to $ operatornameIm f.$



Here is what I have done:



If $f:Eto F$ is linear and $dim E<infty$, then $$dim E=dim ker f+dim operatornameIm f. ;;;;;(1)$$ Since $E=ker foplus H$, then by formula of four-dimension $$dim E=dim ker f+dim H. ;;;;;(2)$$
From $(1)$ and $(2)$, we have that
$$dim H=dim operatornameIm f.$$
Then, $H $ is isomorphic to $ operatornameIm f.$ Please, I'm I right or wrong? If no, I would love to see better solutions.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 27 at 17:01
























asked Jul 27 at 16:37









Mike

62112




62112











  • @hardmath: My apologies for that!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 16:54
















  • @hardmath: My apologies for that!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 16:54















@hardmath: My apologies for that!
– Mike
Jul 27 at 16:54




@hardmath: My apologies for that!
– Mike
Jul 27 at 16:54










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Yes, this looks correct.



Since you have an explicit assumption that $E$ is finite-dimensional, this is probably also what you're supposed to do.



But the conclusion is also true in the infinite-dimensional case -- in fact you should be able to prove that the restriction of $f$ to $H$ is the isomorphism you're looking for, without counting dimensions at all.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Okay, I get it now!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 16:59










  • So, how do I do it without counting on dimensions?
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 17:07










  • @Mike: As I wrote: The restriction of $f$ to $H$ is an isomorphism $HtooperatornameIm f$. It should be simple to prove that it is (a) linear, (b) surjective, and (c) injective.
    – Henning Makholm
    Jul 27 at 18:45


















up vote
1
down vote













Yes, your proof is right. It can be seen as a direct consequence of the rank–nullity theorem, the Grassmann formula and the fact that




Two finite dimensional vector spaces over a field $K$ are isomprphic iff they have the same dimension




The proof of this is straightforward because if they are isomorphic there is an isomorphism $phi$ that maps the base of one onto the base to the other so they have the same dimension. On the other hand if they have the same dimension they are both isomorphic to $K$ and so isomorphic to each other






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Thanks a lot for your response!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 17:10

















up vote
1
down vote













The result is true regardless the dimension of $E$; that is, even when $E$ is infinite-dimensional:



$H$ is a complement of $textker f$, and all its complements are isomorphic to $V/textker f$. From this and applying the First Isomorphism Theorem, we get that
$$H simeq V/textker f simeq textIm f.$$






share|cite|improve this answer





















    Your Answer




    StackExchange.ifUsing("editor", function ()
    return StackExchange.using("mathjaxEditing", function ()
    StackExchange.MarkdownEditor.creationCallbacks.add(function (editor, postfix)
    StackExchange.mathjaxEditing.prepareWmdForMathJax(editor, postfix, [["$", "$"], ["\\(","\\)"]]);
    );
    );
    , "mathjax-editing");

    StackExchange.ready(function()
    var channelOptions =
    tags: "".split(" "),
    id: "69"
    ;
    initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

    StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function()
    // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
    if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled)
    StackExchange.using("snippets", function()
    createEditor();
    );

    else
    createEditor();

    );

    function createEditor()
    StackExchange.prepareEditor(
    heartbeatType: 'answer',
    convertImagesToLinks: true,
    noModals: false,
    showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
    reputationToPostImages: 10,
    bindNavPrevention: true,
    postfix: "",
    noCode: true, onDemand: true,
    discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
    ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
    );



    );








     

    draft saved


    draft discarded


















    StackExchange.ready(
    function ()
    StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2864572%2flet-fe-to-f-be-linear-then-prove-that-if-e-ker-f-oplus-h-then-h-is-iso%23new-answer', 'question_page');

    );

    Post as a guest






























    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes








    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    Yes, this looks correct.



    Since you have an explicit assumption that $E$ is finite-dimensional, this is probably also what you're supposed to do.



    But the conclusion is also true in the infinite-dimensional case -- in fact you should be able to prove that the restriction of $f$ to $H$ is the isomorphism you're looking for, without counting dimensions at all.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Okay, I get it now!
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 16:59










    • So, how do I do it without counting on dimensions?
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 17:07










    • @Mike: As I wrote: The restriction of $f$ to $H$ is an isomorphism $HtooperatornameIm f$. It should be simple to prove that it is (a) linear, (b) surjective, and (c) injective.
      – Henning Makholm
      Jul 27 at 18:45















    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    Yes, this looks correct.



    Since you have an explicit assumption that $E$ is finite-dimensional, this is probably also what you're supposed to do.



    But the conclusion is also true in the infinite-dimensional case -- in fact you should be able to prove that the restriction of $f$ to $H$ is the isomorphism you're looking for, without counting dimensions at all.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Okay, I get it now!
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 16:59










    • So, how do I do it without counting on dimensions?
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 17:07










    • @Mike: As I wrote: The restriction of $f$ to $H$ is an isomorphism $HtooperatornameIm f$. It should be simple to prove that it is (a) linear, (b) surjective, and (c) injective.
      – Henning Makholm
      Jul 27 at 18:45













    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted






    Yes, this looks correct.



    Since you have an explicit assumption that $E$ is finite-dimensional, this is probably also what you're supposed to do.



    But the conclusion is also true in the infinite-dimensional case -- in fact you should be able to prove that the restriction of $f$ to $H$ is the isomorphism you're looking for, without counting dimensions at all.






    share|cite|improve this answer















    Yes, this looks correct.



    Since you have an explicit assumption that $E$ is finite-dimensional, this is probably also what you're supposed to do.



    But the conclusion is also true in the infinite-dimensional case -- in fact you should be able to prove that the restriction of $f$ to $H$ is the isomorphism you're looking for, without counting dimensions at all.







    share|cite|improve this answer















    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jul 27 at 17:04


























    answered Jul 27 at 16:50









    Henning Makholm

    225k16290516




    225k16290516











    • Okay, I get it now!
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 16:59










    • So, how do I do it without counting on dimensions?
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 17:07










    • @Mike: As I wrote: The restriction of $f$ to $H$ is an isomorphism $HtooperatornameIm f$. It should be simple to prove that it is (a) linear, (b) surjective, and (c) injective.
      – Henning Makholm
      Jul 27 at 18:45

















    • Okay, I get it now!
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 16:59










    • So, how do I do it without counting on dimensions?
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 17:07










    • @Mike: As I wrote: The restriction of $f$ to $H$ is an isomorphism $HtooperatornameIm f$. It should be simple to prove that it is (a) linear, (b) surjective, and (c) injective.
      – Henning Makholm
      Jul 27 at 18:45
















    Okay, I get it now!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 16:59




    Okay, I get it now!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 16:59












    So, how do I do it without counting on dimensions?
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 17:07




    So, how do I do it without counting on dimensions?
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 17:07












    @Mike: As I wrote: The restriction of $f$ to $H$ is an isomorphism $HtooperatornameIm f$. It should be simple to prove that it is (a) linear, (b) surjective, and (c) injective.
    – Henning Makholm
    Jul 27 at 18:45





    @Mike: As I wrote: The restriction of $f$ to $H$ is an isomorphism $HtooperatornameIm f$. It should be simple to prove that it is (a) linear, (b) surjective, and (c) injective.
    – Henning Makholm
    Jul 27 at 18:45











    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Yes, your proof is right. It can be seen as a direct consequence of the rank–nullity theorem, the Grassmann formula and the fact that




    Two finite dimensional vector spaces over a field $K$ are isomprphic iff they have the same dimension




    The proof of this is straightforward because if they are isomorphic there is an isomorphism $phi$ that maps the base of one onto the base to the other so they have the same dimension. On the other hand if they have the same dimension they are both isomorphic to $K$ and so isomorphic to each other






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thanks a lot for your response!
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 17:10














    up vote
    1
    down vote













    Yes, your proof is right. It can be seen as a direct consequence of the rank–nullity theorem, the Grassmann formula and the fact that




    Two finite dimensional vector spaces over a field $K$ are isomprphic iff they have the same dimension




    The proof of this is straightforward because if they are isomorphic there is an isomorphism $phi$ that maps the base of one onto the base to the other so they have the same dimension. On the other hand if they have the same dimension they are both isomorphic to $K$ and so isomorphic to each other






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Thanks a lot for your response!
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 17:10












    up vote
    1
    down vote










    up vote
    1
    down vote









    Yes, your proof is right. It can be seen as a direct consequence of the rank–nullity theorem, the Grassmann formula and the fact that




    Two finite dimensional vector spaces over a field $K$ are isomprphic iff they have the same dimension




    The proof of this is straightforward because if they are isomorphic there is an isomorphism $phi$ that maps the base of one onto the base to the other so they have the same dimension. On the other hand if they have the same dimension they are both isomorphic to $K$ and so isomorphic to each other






    share|cite|improve this answer













    Yes, your proof is right. It can be seen as a direct consequence of the rank–nullity theorem, the Grassmann formula and the fact that




    Two finite dimensional vector spaces over a field $K$ are isomprphic iff they have the same dimension




    The proof of this is straightforward because if they are isomorphic there is an isomorphism $phi$ that maps the base of one onto the base to the other so they have the same dimension. On the other hand if they have the same dimension they are both isomorphic to $K$ and so isomorphic to each other







    share|cite|improve this answer













    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer











    answered Jul 27 at 16:48









    Davide Morgante

    1,741220




    1,741220











    • Thanks a lot for your response!
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 17:10
















    • Thanks a lot for your response!
      – Mike
      Jul 27 at 17:10















    Thanks a lot for your response!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 17:10




    Thanks a lot for your response!
    – Mike
    Jul 27 at 17:10










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    The result is true regardless the dimension of $E$; that is, even when $E$ is infinite-dimensional:



    $H$ is a complement of $textker f$, and all its complements are isomorphic to $V/textker f$. From this and applying the First Isomorphism Theorem, we get that
    $$H simeq V/textker f simeq textIm f.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      The result is true regardless the dimension of $E$; that is, even when $E$ is infinite-dimensional:



      $H$ is a complement of $textker f$, and all its complements are isomorphic to $V/textker f$. From this and applying the First Isomorphism Theorem, we get that
      $$H simeq V/textker f simeq textIm f.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        The result is true regardless the dimension of $E$; that is, even when $E$ is infinite-dimensional:



        $H$ is a complement of $textker f$, and all its complements are isomorphic to $V/textker f$. From this and applying the First Isomorphism Theorem, we get that
        $$H simeq V/textker f simeq textIm f.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer













        The result is true regardless the dimension of $E$; that is, even when $E$ is infinite-dimensional:



        $H$ is a complement of $textker f$, and all its complements are isomorphic to $V/textker f$. From this and applying the First Isomorphism Theorem, we get that
        $$H simeq V/textker f simeq textIm f.$$







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Jul 27 at 18:19









        Don

        1263




        1263






















             

            draft saved


            draft discarded


























             


            draft saved


            draft discarded














            StackExchange.ready(
            function ()
            StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fmath.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f2864572%2flet-fe-to-f-be-linear-then-prove-that-if-e-ker-f-oplus-h-then-h-is-iso%23new-answer', 'question_page');

            );

            Post as a guest













































































            Comments

            Popular posts from this blog

            What is the equation of a 3D cone with generalised tilt?

            Color the edges and diagonals of a regular polygon

            Relationship between determinant of matrix and determinant of adjoint?