a monotonic sequence $x_n$ in $mathbbR$ is convergent iff the sequence $(x_n)^2$ is convergent

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a monotonic sequence $x_n$ in $mathbbR$ is convergent iff the sequence $(x_n)^2$ is convergent.



Forward Implications is easy, nothing to worry about that. I am confused about backward implication For backward Implication my attempt.



Attempt(Please check if this reasoning is True)



Case 1:-
$x_n$ is Increasing.
We have two possibilities further.



Either all $x_n<0$ or $x_n >0$ for n>N, where N is some natural number.



When all $x_n<0$ , we have it bounded above by 0. Hence its convergent.



Now if $x_n >0$ for n>N, where N is some natural number. Then because $(x_n)^2$ is convergent implies $(x_n)^2$ is bounded above. Hence
$x_n$ is also bounded above. Hence $x_n$ is convergent.



Simmilar for when $x_n$ is decreasing.



If its not correct, Tell me the solution







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  • 1




    This almost works. You need to prove that $x_n$ is bounded in the case that $x_n>0$ eventually. You say it, but don’t prove it.
    – Clayton
    Jul 26 at 23:20






  • 1




    This argument is perfect.
    – user578878
    Jul 26 at 23:43














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












a monotonic sequence $x_n$ in $mathbbR$ is convergent iff the sequence $(x_n)^2$ is convergent.



Forward Implications is easy, nothing to worry about that. I am confused about backward implication For backward Implication my attempt.



Attempt(Please check if this reasoning is True)



Case 1:-
$x_n$ is Increasing.
We have two possibilities further.



Either all $x_n<0$ or $x_n >0$ for n>N, where N is some natural number.



When all $x_n<0$ , we have it bounded above by 0. Hence its convergent.



Now if $x_n >0$ for n>N, where N is some natural number. Then because $(x_n)^2$ is convergent implies $(x_n)^2$ is bounded above. Hence
$x_n$ is also bounded above. Hence $x_n$ is convergent.



Simmilar for when $x_n$ is decreasing.



If its not correct, Tell me the solution







share|cite|improve this question















  • 1




    This almost works. You need to prove that $x_n$ is bounded in the case that $x_n>0$ eventually. You say it, but don’t prove it.
    – Clayton
    Jul 26 at 23:20






  • 1




    This argument is perfect.
    – user578878
    Jul 26 at 23:43












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











a monotonic sequence $x_n$ in $mathbbR$ is convergent iff the sequence $(x_n)^2$ is convergent.



Forward Implications is easy, nothing to worry about that. I am confused about backward implication For backward Implication my attempt.



Attempt(Please check if this reasoning is True)



Case 1:-
$x_n$ is Increasing.
We have two possibilities further.



Either all $x_n<0$ or $x_n >0$ for n>N, where N is some natural number.



When all $x_n<0$ , we have it bounded above by 0. Hence its convergent.



Now if $x_n >0$ for n>N, where N is some natural number. Then because $(x_n)^2$ is convergent implies $(x_n)^2$ is bounded above. Hence
$x_n$ is also bounded above. Hence $x_n$ is convergent.



Simmilar for when $x_n$ is decreasing.



If its not correct, Tell me the solution







share|cite|improve this question











a monotonic sequence $x_n$ in $mathbbR$ is convergent iff the sequence $(x_n)^2$ is convergent.



Forward Implications is easy, nothing to worry about that. I am confused about backward implication For backward Implication my attempt.



Attempt(Please check if this reasoning is True)



Case 1:-
$x_n$ is Increasing.
We have two possibilities further.



Either all $x_n<0$ or $x_n >0$ for n>N, where N is some natural number.



When all $x_n<0$ , we have it bounded above by 0. Hence its convergent.



Now if $x_n >0$ for n>N, where N is some natural number. Then because $(x_n)^2$ is convergent implies $(x_n)^2$ is bounded above. Hence
$x_n$ is also bounded above. Hence $x_n$ is convergent.



Simmilar for when $x_n$ is decreasing.



If its not correct, Tell me the solution









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 26 at 23:09









Rakesh Bhatt

638112




638112







  • 1




    This almost works. You need to prove that $x_n$ is bounded in the case that $x_n>0$ eventually. You say it, but don’t prove it.
    – Clayton
    Jul 26 at 23:20






  • 1




    This argument is perfect.
    – user578878
    Jul 26 at 23:43












  • 1




    This almost works. You need to prove that $x_n$ is bounded in the case that $x_n>0$ eventually. You say it, but don’t prove it.
    – Clayton
    Jul 26 at 23:20






  • 1




    This argument is perfect.
    – user578878
    Jul 26 at 23:43







1




1




This almost works. You need to prove that $x_n$ is bounded in the case that $x_n>0$ eventually. You say it, but don’t prove it.
– Clayton
Jul 26 at 23:20




This almost works. You need to prove that $x_n$ is bounded in the case that $x_n>0$ eventually. You say it, but don’t prove it.
– Clayton
Jul 26 at 23:20




1




1




This argument is perfect.
– user578878
Jul 26 at 23:43




This argument is perfect.
– user578878
Jul 26 at 23:43















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