“Simple problem” to find order of a product in a Group [duplicate]

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  • Inverse of $ab$ and its order in a group with relations $a^2=e=b^6$ and $ab=b^4a$

    2 answers



Let a and b be elements of a group, with $a^2 = e, b^6 = e $ and $ ab =b^4 a $ . Find the order of ab, and
express its inverse in each of the forms $a^mb^n$ and $b^ma^n?$



Though it seems very simple I'm unable to find a power such that $(ab)^x =e$. Please help.



Im all confused with this problem.



PS: to put in context, this question was asked for
maths optional UPSC IAS exam in India







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marked as duplicate by rschwieb abstract-algebra
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This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.










  • 1




    For all we know $ab$ could be equal to $e$, hence of order $1$.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 26 at 9:53











  • $(ab)^2 = abcdot ab = b^4acdot ab = b^4a^2b = b^4eb = b^5$.
    – Bill Wallis
    Jul 26 at 9:54






  • 2




    Why do you think that $ab=(ab)^4$? If so, then the order of $ab$ would be $1$ or $3$.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 26 at 9:58










  • @BillWallis i dont understand the operation is $ xy=y^4x $, how can you simply multiply $b^4a$ and $ab$??
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:34










  • @johny You are given that $ab = b^4a$. Thus, any time you see $ab$ you can replace it with $b^4a$, and vice versa. This means that the product $(ab)^2 = abab$ is equal to the product $b^4aab$ by replacing (one of) $ab$ with $b^4a$.
    – Bill Wallis
    Jul 26 at 10:38















up vote
0
down vote

favorite
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This question already has an answer here:



  • Inverse of $ab$ and its order in a group with relations $a^2=e=b^6$ and $ab=b^4a$

    2 answers



Let a and b be elements of a group, with $a^2 = e, b^6 = e $ and $ ab =b^4 a $ . Find the order of ab, and
express its inverse in each of the forms $a^mb^n$ and $b^ma^n?$



Though it seems very simple I'm unable to find a power such that $(ab)^x =e$. Please help.



Im all confused with this problem.



PS: to put in context, this question was asked for
maths optional UPSC IAS exam in India







share|cite|improve this question













marked as duplicate by rschwieb abstract-algebra
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  • 1




    For all we know $ab$ could be equal to $e$, hence of order $1$.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 26 at 9:53











  • $(ab)^2 = abcdot ab = b^4acdot ab = b^4a^2b = b^4eb = b^5$.
    – Bill Wallis
    Jul 26 at 9:54






  • 2




    Why do you think that $ab=(ab)^4$? If so, then the order of $ab$ would be $1$ or $3$.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 26 at 9:58










  • @BillWallis i dont understand the operation is $ xy=y^4x $, how can you simply multiply $b^4a$ and $ab$??
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:34










  • @johny You are given that $ab = b^4a$. Thus, any time you see $ab$ you can replace it with $b^4a$, and vice versa. This means that the product $(ab)^2 = abab$ is equal to the product $b^4aab$ by replacing (one of) $ab$ with $b^4a$.
    – Bill Wallis
    Jul 26 at 10:38













up vote
0
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favorite
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up vote
0
down vote

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3






This question already has an answer here:



  • Inverse of $ab$ and its order in a group with relations $a^2=e=b^6$ and $ab=b^4a$

    2 answers



Let a and b be elements of a group, with $a^2 = e, b^6 = e $ and $ ab =b^4 a $ . Find the order of ab, and
express its inverse in each of the forms $a^mb^n$ and $b^ma^n?$



Though it seems very simple I'm unable to find a power such that $(ab)^x =e$. Please help.



Im all confused with this problem.



PS: to put in context, this question was asked for
maths optional UPSC IAS exam in India







share|cite|improve this question














This question already has an answer here:



  • Inverse of $ab$ and its order in a group with relations $a^2=e=b^6$ and $ab=b^4a$

    2 answers



Let a and b be elements of a group, with $a^2 = e, b^6 = e $ and $ ab =b^4 a $ . Find the order of ab, and
express its inverse in each of the forms $a^mb^n$ and $b^ma^n?$



Though it seems very simple I'm unable to find a power such that $(ab)^x =e$. Please help.



Im all confused with this problem.



PS: to put in context, this question was asked for
maths optional UPSC IAS exam in India





This question already has an answer here:



  • Inverse of $ab$ and its order in a group with relations $a^2=e=b^6$ and $ab=b^4a$

    2 answers









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 26 at 13:26









rschwieb

99.7k1191226




99.7k1191226









asked Jul 26 at 9:50









johny

515




515




marked as duplicate by rschwieb abstract-algebra
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  • 1




    For all we know $ab$ could be equal to $e$, hence of order $1$.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 26 at 9:53











  • $(ab)^2 = abcdot ab = b^4acdot ab = b^4a^2b = b^4eb = b^5$.
    – Bill Wallis
    Jul 26 at 9:54






  • 2




    Why do you think that $ab=(ab)^4$? If so, then the order of $ab$ would be $1$ or $3$.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 26 at 9:58










  • @BillWallis i dont understand the operation is $ xy=y^4x $, how can you simply multiply $b^4a$ and $ab$??
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:34










  • @johny You are given that $ab = b^4a$. Thus, any time you see $ab$ you can replace it with $b^4a$, and vice versa. This means that the product $(ab)^2 = abab$ is equal to the product $b^4aab$ by replacing (one of) $ab$ with $b^4a$.
    – Bill Wallis
    Jul 26 at 10:38













  • 1




    For all we know $ab$ could be equal to $e$, hence of order $1$.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 26 at 9:53











  • $(ab)^2 = abcdot ab = b^4acdot ab = b^4a^2b = b^4eb = b^5$.
    – Bill Wallis
    Jul 26 at 9:54






  • 2




    Why do you think that $ab=(ab)^4$? If so, then the order of $ab$ would be $1$ or $3$.
    – Arnaud Mortier
    Jul 26 at 9:58










  • @BillWallis i dont understand the operation is $ xy=y^4x $, how can you simply multiply $b^4a$ and $ab$??
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:34










  • @johny You are given that $ab = b^4a$. Thus, any time you see $ab$ you can replace it with $b^4a$, and vice versa. This means that the product $(ab)^2 = abab$ is equal to the product $b^4aab$ by replacing (one of) $ab$ with $b^4a$.
    – Bill Wallis
    Jul 26 at 10:38








1




1




For all we know $ab$ could be equal to $e$, hence of order $1$.
– Arnaud Mortier
Jul 26 at 9:53





For all we know $ab$ could be equal to $e$, hence of order $1$.
– Arnaud Mortier
Jul 26 at 9:53













$(ab)^2 = abcdot ab = b^4acdot ab = b^4a^2b = b^4eb = b^5$.
– Bill Wallis
Jul 26 at 9:54




$(ab)^2 = abcdot ab = b^4acdot ab = b^4a^2b = b^4eb = b^5$.
– Bill Wallis
Jul 26 at 9:54




2




2




Why do you think that $ab=(ab)^4$? If so, then the order of $ab$ would be $1$ or $3$.
– Arnaud Mortier
Jul 26 at 9:58




Why do you think that $ab=(ab)^4$? If so, then the order of $ab$ would be $1$ or $3$.
– Arnaud Mortier
Jul 26 at 9:58












@BillWallis i dont understand the operation is $ xy=y^4x $, how can you simply multiply $b^4a$ and $ab$??
– johny
Jul 26 at 10:34




@BillWallis i dont understand the operation is $ xy=y^4x $, how can you simply multiply $b^4a$ and $ab$??
– johny
Jul 26 at 10:34












@johny You are given that $ab = b^4a$. Thus, any time you see $ab$ you can replace it with $b^4a$, and vice versa. This means that the product $(ab)^2 = abab$ is equal to the product $b^4aab$ by replacing (one of) $ab$ with $b^4a$.
– Bill Wallis
Jul 26 at 10:38





@johny You are given that $ab = b^4a$. Thus, any time you see $ab$ you can replace it with $b^4a$, and vice versa. This means that the product $(ab)^2 = abab$ is equal to the product $b^4aab$ by replacing (one of) $ab$ with $b^4a$.
– Bill Wallis
Jul 26 at 10:38











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










From $b^6=e$ and $ab = b^4a$ we can conclude $b^3 = e$: we have
$$
b^3 = a^-1(aba^-1)^3a = a^-1(b^4)^3a = a^-1b^12a = a^-1ea = e.
$$
Hence, $ab = b^4a = ba$, i.e. $a$ and $b$ commute. Now, it is easy to see that $(ab)^6 = e$. From this, we can only conclude $lvert abrvert in 1,2,3,6$.



For the second part of the question: Notice that $(ab)^6=e$ implies $(ab)^-1 = (ab)^5 = a^5b^5 = ab^2 = b^2a$. (Here we have used $a^2 = b^3 = e$ and $ab = ba$.)






share|cite|improve this answer























  • The conclusion that $b^3=e$ is correct. The conclusion that the original group $G$ is isomorphic to $H=langle a,b | a^2=b^3=e, ab=baranglesimeqmathbbZ_6$ is wrong. Note that the trivial group satisfies all requirements (the OP never stated that $aneq b$ or that $bneq e$). The correct conclusion is that there is a group epimorphism $Hto G$ meaning $G$ is a quotient of $H$ making the order $|ab|$ a bit more complicated.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:23











  • @Claudius how did you made $b^3$ complicated like that, I didnt get that step. Why you people are taking $ab=b^4a $ whenever you like and at other times simply multiplying it as it is ab. I mean inside the bracket, why didnt you expand like $ba^-1 = a^-4 b$? Thats my confusion sometimes it's taken as though there is a binary operation a*b , other times simply as ab. Its confusing me.
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:42











  • @johny There's an implicit, standard assumption that $xy$ is the same as $x*y$. Also you cannot expand $ba^-1$ because there's no formula for that. Your formulas are precisely about two fixed elements $a,b$ and their product $ab$, nothing else. Unless there's an explicit statement "for all $a,b$" and there's no such thing.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:46











  • Also after getting $b^3 = e$ why cant we just take $(ab)^6 = $$(a^2)^3$$(b^3)^2$ =e. What is the need to prove ab = ba?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:49










  • @johny The same thing: $b^3=e$ is a formula about $b$ only. You cannot substitute $ab$ for $b$ because it doesn't hold for $ab$. To make that substitution valid you would have to start your problem with "for all $a,b$ in a group the following holds: ..." but you've started with "let $a,b$ be two elements of a group" which implicitly means that they are fixed.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:52


















up vote
0
down vote













Let be $|ab|=m$. Then $(ab)^m=e$.



Observe that $(ab)^3=(ab)(ab)(ab)=ab(b^4a)(ab)=ab^5a^2b=a$. So



$((ab)^3)^2=a^2=e$. So $|ab|=mmid 6$. Hence $|ab|=min 1,2,3,6$.



We conclude easy that $ab=ba$ and $a^2=b^3=e$ and inverse of $ab$ of the form $a^mb^n=ab^2$ and of the form $b^ma^n=b^2a$.
This means that general form of group $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$.




  • If $|ab|=1$ then $G=e, a$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_2$,


  • IF $|ab|=2$ then $G=e,a,b,ab$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_ztimes Z_2$ ( (can not be isomorph $Bbb Z_4$ It hasn't any element order $4$),


  • If $|ab|=3$ then $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ i.e., then $Gcong Bbb Z_6$,


  • If $|ab|=6$ then $langle abrangle= G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ $Gcong Bbb Z_6$.







share|cite|improve this answer























  • Is this method correct? this look very straightforward and easy, did you check the answer below, why they are going that way if it can be done like this? Are you sure?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:10










  • please look at the below answer. It's saying your method is not correct. can u comment on that?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:32











  • It is easy see that m>2 Wrong. If $G$ is trivial then $|ab|=1$. If $G$ is $mathbbZ_2$ then $|ab|=2$. Also the only valid conclusion from $(ab)^6=e$ is that $|ab|$ divides $6$.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 11:57











  • no as pointed above they are saying your proof is wrong. Do you agree with that? Can u give any counter argument on point raised by @freakish?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 12:03










  • @freakish. You are right :). I edited my answer for you. But, We can exclude easy concept there.
    – 1ENÄ°GMA1
    Jul 26 at 12:09

















2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes








2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










From $b^6=e$ and $ab = b^4a$ we can conclude $b^3 = e$: we have
$$
b^3 = a^-1(aba^-1)^3a = a^-1(b^4)^3a = a^-1b^12a = a^-1ea = e.
$$
Hence, $ab = b^4a = ba$, i.e. $a$ and $b$ commute. Now, it is easy to see that $(ab)^6 = e$. From this, we can only conclude $lvert abrvert in 1,2,3,6$.



For the second part of the question: Notice that $(ab)^6=e$ implies $(ab)^-1 = (ab)^5 = a^5b^5 = ab^2 = b^2a$. (Here we have used $a^2 = b^3 = e$ and $ab = ba$.)






share|cite|improve this answer























  • The conclusion that $b^3=e$ is correct. The conclusion that the original group $G$ is isomorphic to $H=langle a,b | a^2=b^3=e, ab=baranglesimeqmathbbZ_6$ is wrong. Note that the trivial group satisfies all requirements (the OP never stated that $aneq b$ or that $bneq e$). The correct conclusion is that there is a group epimorphism $Hto G$ meaning $G$ is a quotient of $H$ making the order $|ab|$ a bit more complicated.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:23











  • @Claudius how did you made $b^3$ complicated like that, I didnt get that step. Why you people are taking $ab=b^4a $ whenever you like and at other times simply multiplying it as it is ab. I mean inside the bracket, why didnt you expand like $ba^-1 = a^-4 b$? Thats my confusion sometimes it's taken as though there is a binary operation a*b , other times simply as ab. Its confusing me.
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:42











  • @johny There's an implicit, standard assumption that $xy$ is the same as $x*y$. Also you cannot expand $ba^-1$ because there's no formula for that. Your formulas are precisely about two fixed elements $a,b$ and their product $ab$, nothing else. Unless there's an explicit statement "for all $a,b$" and there's no such thing.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:46











  • Also after getting $b^3 = e$ why cant we just take $(ab)^6 = $$(a^2)^3$$(b^3)^2$ =e. What is the need to prove ab = ba?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:49










  • @johny The same thing: $b^3=e$ is a formula about $b$ only. You cannot substitute $ab$ for $b$ because it doesn't hold for $ab$. To make that substitution valid you would have to start your problem with "for all $a,b$ in a group the following holds: ..." but you've started with "let $a,b$ be two elements of a group" which implicitly means that they are fixed.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:52















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










From $b^6=e$ and $ab = b^4a$ we can conclude $b^3 = e$: we have
$$
b^3 = a^-1(aba^-1)^3a = a^-1(b^4)^3a = a^-1b^12a = a^-1ea = e.
$$
Hence, $ab = b^4a = ba$, i.e. $a$ and $b$ commute. Now, it is easy to see that $(ab)^6 = e$. From this, we can only conclude $lvert abrvert in 1,2,3,6$.



For the second part of the question: Notice that $(ab)^6=e$ implies $(ab)^-1 = (ab)^5 = a^5b^5 = ab^2 = b^2a$. (Here we have used $a^2 = b^3 = e$ and $ab = ba$.)






share|cite|improve this answer























  • The conclusion that $b^3=e$ is correct. The conclusion that the original group $G$ is isomorphic to $H=langle a,b | a^2=b^3=e, ab=baranglesimeqmathbbZ_6$ is wrong. Note that the trivial group satisfies all requirements (the OP never stated that $aneq b$ or that $bneq e$). The correct conclusion is that there is a group epimorphism $Hto G$ meaning $G$ is a quotient of $H$ making the order $|ab|$ a bit more complicated.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:23











  • @Claudius how did you made $b^3$ complicated like that, I didnt get that step. Why you people are taking $ab=b^4a $ whenever you like and at other times simply multiplying it as it is ab. I mean inside the bracket, why didnt you expand like $ba^-1 = a^-4 b$? Thats my confusion sometimes it's taken as though there is a binary operation a*b , other times simply as ab. Its confusing me.
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:42











  • @johny There's an implicit, standard assumption that $xy$ is the same as $x*y$. Also you cannot expand $ba^-1$ because there's no formula for that. Your formulas are precisely about two fixed elements $a,b$ and their product $ab$, nothing else. Unless there's an explicit statement "for all $a,b$" and there's no such thing.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:46











  • Also after getting $b^3 = e$ why cant we just take $(ab)^6 = $$(a^2)^3$$(b^3)^2$ =e. What is the need to prove ab = ba?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:49










  • @johny The same thing: $b^3=e$ is a formula about $b$ only. You cannot substitute $ab$ for $b$ because it doesn't hold for $ab$. To make that substitution valid you would have to start your problem with "for all $a,b$ in a group the following holds: ..." but you've started with "let $a,b$ be two elements of a group" which implicitly means that they are fixed.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:52













up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






From $b^6=e$ and $ab = b^4a$ we can conclude $b^3 = e$: we have
$$
b^3 = a^-1(aba^-1)^3a = a^-1(b^4)^3a = a^-1b^12a = a^-1ea = e.
$$
Hence, $ab = b^4a = ba$, i.e. $a$ and $b$ commute. Now, it is easy to see that $(ab)^6 = e$. From this, we can only conclude $lvert abrvert in 1,2,3,6$.



For the second part of the question: Notice that $(ab)^6=e$ implies $(ab)^-1 = (ab)^5 = a^5b^5 = ab^2 = b^2a$. (Here we have used $a^2 = b^3 = e$ and $ab = ba$.)






share|cite|improve this answer















From $b^6=e$ and $ab = b^4a$ we can conclude $b^3 = e$: we have
$$
b^3 = a^-1(aba^-1)^3a = a^-1(b^4)^3a = a^-1b^12a = a^-1ea = e.
$$
Hence, $ab = b^4a = ba$, i.e. $a$ and $b$ commute. Now, it is easy to see that $(ab)^6 = e$. From this, we can only conclude $lvert abrvert in 1,2,3,6$.



For the second part of the question: Notice that $(ab)^6=e$ implies $(ab)^-1 = (ab)^5 = a^5b^5 = ab^2 = b^2a$. (Here we have used $a^2 = b^3 = e$ and $ab = ba$.)







share|cite|improve this answer















share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jul 26 at 11:15


























answered Jul 26 at 10:10









Claudius

3,7111515




3,7111515











  • The conclusion that $b^3=e$ is correct. The conclusion that the original group $G$ is isomorphic to $H=langle a,b | a^2=b^3=e, ab=baranglesimeqmathbbZ_6$ is wrong. Note that the trivial group satisfies all requirements (the OP never stated that $aneq b$ or that $bneq e$). The correct conclusion is that there is a group epimorphism $Hto G$ meaning $G$ is a quotient of $H$ making the order $|ab|$ a bit more complicated.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:23











  • @Claudius how did you made $b^3$ complicated like that, I didnt get that step. Why you people are taking $ab=b^4a $ whenever you like and at other times simply multiplying it as it is ab. I mean inside the bracket, why didnt you expand like $ba^-1 = a^-4 b$? Thats my confusion sometimes it's taken as though there is a binary operation a*b , other times simply as ab. Its confusing me.
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:42











  • @johny There's an implicit, standard assumption that $xy$ is the same as $x*y$. Also you cannot expand $ba^-1$ because there's no formula for that. Your formulas are precisely about two fixed elements $a,b$ and their product $ab$, nothing else. Unless there's an explicit statement "for all $a,b$" and there's no such thing.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:46











  • Also after getting $b^3 = e$ why cant we just take $(ab)^6 = $$(a^2)^3$$(b^3)^2$ =e. What is the need to prove ab = ba?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:49










  • @johny The same thing: $b^3=e$ is a formula about $b$ only. You cannot substitute $ab$ for $b$ because it doesn't hold for $ab$. To make that substitution valid you would have to start your problem with "for all $a,b$ in a group the following holds: ..." but you've started with "let $a,b$ be two elements of a group" which implicitly means that they are fixed.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:52

















  • The conclusion that $b^3=e$ is correct. The conclusion that the original group $G$ is isomorphic to $H=langle a,b | a^2=b^3=e, ab=baranglesimeqmathbbZ_6$ is wrong. Note that the trivial group satisfies all requirements (the OP never stated that $aneq b$ or that $bneq e$). The correct conclusion is that there is a group epimorphism $Hto G$ meaning $G$ is a quotient of $H$ making the order $|ab|$ a bit more complicated.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:23











  • @Claudius how did you made $b^3$ complicated like that, I didnt get that step. Why you people are taking $ab=b^4a $ whenever you like and at other times simply multiplying it as it is ab. I mean inside the bracket, why didnt you expand like $ba^-1 = a^-4 b$? Thats my confusion sometimes it's taken as though there is a binary operation a*b , other times simply as ab. Its confusing me.
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:42











  • @johny There's an implicit, standard assumption that $xy$ is the same as $x*y$. Also you cannot expand $ba^-1$ because there's no formula for that. Your formulas are precisely about two fixed elements $a,b$ and their product $ab$, nothing else. Unless there's an explicit statement "for all $a,b$" and there's no such thing.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:46











  • Also after getting $b^3 = e$ why cant we just take $(ab)^6 = $$(a^2)^3$$(b^3)^2$ =e. What is the need to prove ab = ba?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 10:49










  • @johny The same thing: $b^3=e$ is a formula about $b$ only. You cannot substitute $ab$ for $b$ because it doesn't hold for $ab$. To make that substitution valid you would have to start your problem with "for all $a,b$ in a group the following holds: ..." but you've started with "let $a,b$ be two elements of a group" which implicitly means that they are fixed.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 10:52
















The conclusion that $b^3=e$ is correct. The conclusion that the original group $G$ is isomorphic to $H=langle a,b | a^2=b^3=e, ab=baranglesimeqmathbbZ_6$ is wrong. Note that the trivial group satisfies all requirements (the OP never stated that $aneq b$ or that $bneq e$). The correct conclusion is that there is a group epimorphism $Hto G$ meaning $G$ is a quotient of $H$ making the order $|ab|$ a bit more complicated.
– freakish
Jul 26 at 10:23





The conclusion that $b^3=e$ is correct. The conclusion that the original group $G$ is isomorphic to $H=langle a,b | a^2=b^3=e, ab=baranglesimeqmathbbZ_6$ is wrong. Note that the trivial group satisfies all requirements (the OP never stated that $aneq b$ or that $bneq e$). The correct conclusion is that there is a group epimorphism $Hto G$ meaning $G$ is a quotient of $H$ making the order $|ab|$ a bit more complicated.
– freakish
Jul 26 at 10:23













@Claudius how did you made $b^3$ complicated like that, I didnt get that step. Why you people are taking $ab=b^4a $ whenever you like and at other times simply multiplying it as it is ab. I mean inside the bracket, why didnt you expand like $ba^-1 = a^-4 b$? Thats my confusion sometimes it's taken as though there is a binary operation a*b , other times simply as ab. Its confusing me.
– johny
Jul 26 at 10:42





@Claudius how did you made $b^3$ complicated like that, I didnt get that step. Why you people are taking $ab=b^4a $ whenever you like and at other times simply multiplying it as it is ab. I mean inside the bracket, why didnt you expand like $ba^-1 = a^-4 b$? Thats my confusion sometimes it's taken as though there is a binary operation a*b , other times simply as ab. Its confusing me.
– johny
Jul 26 at 10:42













@johny There's an implicit, standard assumption that $xy$ is the same as $x*y$. Also you cannot expand $ba^-1$ because there's no formula for that. Your formulas are precisely about two fixed elements $a,b$ and their product $ab$, nothing else. Unless there's an explicit statement "for all $a,b$" and there's no such thing.
– freakish
Jul 26 at 10:46





@johny There's an implicit, standard assumption that $xy$ is the same as $x*y$. Also you cannot expand $ba^-1$ because there's no formula for that. Your formulas are precisely about two fixed elements $a,b$ and their product $ab$, nothing else. Unless there's an explicit statement "for all $a,b$" and there's no such thing.
– freakish
Jul 26 at 10:46













Also after getting $b^3 = e$ why cant we just take $(ab)^6 = $$(a^2)^3$$(b^3)^2$ =e. What is the need to prove ab = ba?
– johny
Jul 26 at 10:49




Also after getting $b^3 = e$ why cant we just take $(ab)^6 = $$(a^2)^3$$(b^3)^2$ =e. What is the need to prove ab = ba?
– johny
Jul 26 at 10:49












@johny The same thing: $b^3=e$ is a formula about $b$ only. You cannot substitute $ab$ for $b$ because it doesn't hold for $ab$. To make that substitution valid you would have to start your problem with "for all $a,b$ in a group the following holds: ..." but you've started with "let $a,b$ be two elements of a group" which implicitly means that they are fixed.
– freakish
Jul 26 at 10:52





@johny The same thing: $b^3=e$ is a formula about $b$ only. You cannot substitute $ab$ for $b$ because it doesn't hold for $ab$. To make that substitution valid you would have to start your problem with "for all $a,b$ in a group the following holds: ..." but you've started with "let $a,b$ be two elements of a group" which implicitly means that they are fixed.
– freakish
Jul 26 at 10:52











up vote
0
down vote













Let be $|ab|=m$. Then $(ab)^m=e$.



Observe that $(ab)^3=(ab)(ab)(ab)=ab(b^4a)(ab)=ab^5a^2b=a$. So



$((ab)^3)^2=a^2=e$. So $|ab|=mmid 6$. Hence $|ab|=min 1,2,3,6$.



We conclude easy that $ab=ba$ and $a^2=b^3=e$ and inverse of $ab$ of the form $a^mb^n=ab^2$ and of the form $b^ma^n=b^2a$.
This means that general form of group $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$.




  • If $|ab|=1$ then $G=e, a$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_2$,


  • IF $|ab|=2$ then $G=e,a,b,ab$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_ztimes Z_2$ ( (can not be isomorph $Bbb Z_4$ It hasn't any element order $4$),


  • If $|ab|=3$ then $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ i.e., then $Gcong Bbb Z_6$,


  • If $|ab|=6$ then $langle abrangle= G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ $Gcong Bbb Z_6$.







share|cite|improve this answer























  • Is this method correct? this look very straightforward and easy, did you check the answer below, why they are going that way if it can be done like this? Are you sure?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:10










  • please look at the below answer. It's saying your method is not correct. can u comment on that?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:32











  • It is easy see that m>2 Wrong. If $G$ is trivial then $|ab|=1$. If $G$ is $mathbbZ_2$ then $|ab|=2$. Also the only valid conclusion from $(ab)^6=e$ is that $|ab|$ divides $6$.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 11:57











  • no as pointed above they are saying your proof is wrong. Do you agree with that? Can u give any counter argument on point raised by @freakish?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 12:03










  • @freakish. You are right :). I edited my answer for you. But, We can exclude easy concept there.
    – 1ENÄ°GMA1
    Jul 26 at 12:09














up vote
0
down vote













Let be $|ab|=m$. Then $(ab)^m=e$.



Observe that $(ab)^3=(ab)(ab)(ab)=ab(b^4a)(ab)=ab^5a^2b=a$. So



$((ab)^3)^2=a^2=e$. So $|ab|=mmid 6$. Hence $|ab|=min 1,2,3,6$.



We conclude easy that $ab=ba$ and $a^2=b^3=e$ and inverse of $ab$ of the form $a^mb^n=ab^2$ and of the form $b^ma^n=b^2a$.
This means that general form of group $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$.




  • If $|ab|=1$ then $G=e, a$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_2$,


  • IF $|ab|=2$ then $G=e,a,b,ab$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_ztimes Z_2$ ( (can not be isomorph $Bbb Z_4$ It hasn't any element order $4$),


  • If $|ab|=3$ then $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ i.e., then $Gcong Bbb Z_6$,


  • If $|ab|=6$ then $langle abrangle= G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ $Gcong Bbb Z_6$.







share|cite|improve this answer























  • Is this method correct? this look very straightforward and easy, did you check the answer below, why they are going that way if it can be done like this? Are you sure?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:10










  • please look at the below answer. It's saying your method is not correct. can u comment on that?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:32











  • It is easy see that m>2 Wrong. If $G$ is trivial then $|ab|=1$. If $G$ is $mathbbZ_2$ then $|ab|=2$. Also the only valid conclusion from $(ab)^6=e$ is that $|ab|$ divides $6$.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 11:57











  • no as pointed above they are saying your proof is wrong. Do you agree with that? Can u give any counter argument on point raised by @freakish?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 12:03










  • @freakish. You are right :). I edited my answer for you. But, We can exclude easy concept there.
    – 1ENÄ°GMA1
    Jul 26 at 12:09












up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









Let be $|ab|=m$. Then $(ab)^m=e$.



Observe that $(ab)^3=(ab)(ab)(ab)=ab(b^4a)(ab)=ab^5a^2b=a$. So



$((ab)^3)^2=a^2=e$. So $|ab|=mmid 6$. Hence $|ab|=min 1,2,3,6$.



We conclude easy that $ab=ba$ and $a^2=b^3=e$ and inverse of $ab$ of the form $a^mb^n=ab^2$ and of the form $b^ma^n=b^2a$.
This means that general form of group $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$.




  • If $|ab|=1$ then $G=e, a$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_2$,


  • IF $|ab|=2$ then $G=e,a,b,ab$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_ztimes Z_2$ ( (can not be isomorph $Bbb Z_4$ It hasn't any element order $4$),


  • If $|ab|=3$ then $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ i.e., then $Gcong Bbb Z_6$,


  • If $|ab|=6$ then $langle abrangle= G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ $Gcong Bbb Z_6$.







share|cite|improve this answer















Let be $|ab|=m$. Then $(ab)^m=e$.



Observe that $(ab)^3=(ab)(ab)(ab)=ab(b^4a)(ab)=ab^5a^2b=a$. So



$((ab)^3)^2=a^2=e$. So $|ab|=mmid 6$. Hence $|ab|=min 1,2,3,6$.



We conclude easy that $ab=ba$ and $a^2=b^3=e$ and inverse of $ab$ of the form $a^mb^n=ab^2$ and of the form $b^ma^n=b^2a$.
This means that general form of group $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$.




  • If $|ab|=1$ then $G=e, a$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_2$,


  • IF $|ab|=2$ then $G=e,a,b,ab$ i.e., $Gcong Bbb Z_ztimes Z_2$ ( (can not be isomorph $Bbb Z_4$ It hasn't any element order $4$),


  • If $|ab|=3$ then $G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ i.e., then $Gcong Bbb Z_6$,


  • If $|ab|=6$ then $langle abrangle= G=1,a,b,b^2, ab, ab^2$ $Gcong Bbb Z_6$.








share|cite|improve this answer















share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jul 26 at 13:37


























answered Jul 26 at 11:01









1ENÄ°GMA1

762315




762315











  • Is this method correct? this look very straightforward and easy, did you check the answer below, why they are going that way if it can be done like this? Are you sure?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:10










  • please look at the below answer. It's saying your method is not correct. can u comment on that?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:32











  • It is easy see that m>2 Wrong. If $G$ is trivial then $|ab|=1$. If $G$ is $mathbbZ_2$ then $|ab|=2$. Also the only valid conclusion from $(ab)^6=e$ is that $|ab|$ divides $6$.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 11:57











  • no as pointed above they are saying your proof is wrong. Do you agree with that? Can u give any counter argument on point raised by @freakish?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 12:03










  • @freakish. You are right :). I edited my answer for you. But, We can exclude easy concept there.
    – 1ENÄ°GMA1
    Jul 26 at 12:09
















  • Is this method correct? this look very straightforward and easy, did you check the answer below, why they are going that way if it can be done like this? Are you sure?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:10










  • please look at the below answer. It's saying your method is not correct. can u comment on that?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 11:32











  • It is easy see that m>2 Wrong. If $G$ is trivial then $|ab|=1$. If $G$ is $mathbbZ_2$ then $|ab|=2$. Also the only valid conclusion from $(ab)^6=e$ is that $|ab|$ divides $6$.
    – freakish
    Jul 26 at 11:57











  • no as pointed above they are saying your proof is wrong. Do you agree with that? Can u give any counter argument on point raised by @freakish?
    – johny
    Jul 26 at 12:03










  • @freakish. You are right :). I edited my answer for you. But, We can exclude easy concept there.
    – 1ENÄ°GMA1
    Jul 26 at 12:09















Is this method correct? this look very straightforward and easy, did you check the answer below, why they are going that way if it can be done like this? Are you sure?
– johny
Jul 26 at 11:10




Is this method correct? this look very straightforward and easy, did you check the answer below, why they are going that way if it can be done like this? Are you sure?
– johny
Jul 26 at 11:10












please look at the below answer. It's saying your method is not correct. can u comment on that?
– johny
Jul 26 at 11:32





please look at the below answer. It's saying your method is not correct. can u comment on that?
– johny
Jul 26 at 11:32













It is easy see that m>2 Wrong. If $G$ is trivial then $|ab|=1$. If $G$ is $mathbbZ_2$ then $|ab|=2$. Also the only valid conclusion from $(ab)^6=e$ is that $|ab|$ divides $6$.
– freakish
Jul 26 at 11:57





It is easy see that m>2 Wrong. If $G$ is trivial then $|ab|=1$. If $G$ is $mathbbZ_2$ then $|ab|=2$. Also the only valid conclusion from $(ab)^6=e$ is that $|ab|$ divides $6$.
– freakish
Jul 26 at 11:57













no as pointed above they are saying your proof is wrong. Do you agree with that? Can u give any counter argument on point raised by @freakish?
– johny
Jul 26 at 12:03




no as pointed above they are saying your proof is wrong. Do you agree with that? Can u give any counter argument on point raised by @freakish?
– johny
Jul 26 at 12:03












@freakish. You are right :). I edited my answer for you. But, We can exclude easy concept there.
– 1ENÄ°GMA1
Jul 26 at 12:09




@freakish. You are right :). I edited my answer for you. But, We can exclude easy concept there.
– 1ENÄ°GMA1
Jul 26 at 12:09


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