Continuity of an exponential series [duplicate]

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  • continuity of power series

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Let $(a_n)_n in mathbbN$ be an infinite positive sequence of integers.
Assume that $f(lambda) = sumlimits_n=0^infty a_n lambda^n$ is finite for any $lambda in [0, lambda_0)$. Does this necessarily imply that $f(lambda)$ is also continuous in $(0, lambda_0)$, or might something strange happen?







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marked as duplicate by mathcounterexamples.net, Hans Lundmark, Math1000, max_zorn, Xander Henderson Aug 4 at 2:05


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.










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    Yes, it is continuous. It is in fact analytic.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 3 at 19:07







  • 1




    (For positive $a_n$ this is easy, because you very easily establish have uniform bounds, so you can apply Weierstrass M-test.)
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 3 at 19:09










  • Thank you. Is there a theorem I can cite without a proof being required?
    – QuantumLogarithm
    Aug 3 at 19:37






  • 1




    Two results :(1). From the details of the proof of the Cauchy-Hadamard Radius Formula ( sometimes called the Hadamard Radius Formula) we can easily show that the sequence $(sum_n=0^ja_n x^n)_jin Bbb N$ converges uniformly on any closed subset of $D=z$....(2). A uniform limit of a sequence of continuous real or complex functions on $D$ is continuous.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 3 at 19:49















up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1













This question already has an answer here:



  • continuity of power series

    1 answer



Let $(a_n)_n in mathbbN$ be an infinite positive sequence of integers.
Assume that $f(lambda) = sumlimits_n=0^infty a_n lambda^n$ is finite for any $lambda in [0, lambda_0)$. Does this necessarily imply that $f(lambda)$ is also continuous in $(0, lambda_0)$, or might something strange happen?







share|cite|improve this question













marked as duplicate by mathcounterexamples.net, Hans Lundmark, Math1000, max_zorn, Xander Henderson Aug 4 at 2:05


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.










  • 1




    Yes, it is continuous. It is in fact analytic.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 3 at 19:07







  • 1




    (For positive $a_n$ this is easy, because you very easily establish have uniform bounds, so you can apply Weierstrass M-test.)
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 3 at 19:09










  • Thank you. Is there a theorem I can cite without a proof being required?
    – QuantumLogarithm
    Aug 3 at 19:37






  • 1




    Two results :(1). From the details of the proof of the Cauchy-Hadamard Radius Formula ( sometimes called the Hadamard Radius Formula) we can easily show that the sequence $(sum_n=0^ja_n x^n)_jin Bbb N$ converges uniformly on any closed subset of $D=z$....(2). A uniform limit of a sequence of continuous real or complex functions on $D$ is continuous.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 3 at 19:49













up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1






1






This question already has an answer here:



  • continuity of power series

    1 answer



Let $(a_n)_n in mathbbN$ be an infinite positive sequence of integers.
Assume that $f(lambda) = sumlimits_n=0^infty a_n lambda^n$ is finite for any $lambda in [0, lambda_0)$. Does this necessarily imply that $f(lambda)$ is also continuous in $(0, lambda_0)$, or might something strange happen?







share|cite|improve this question














This question already has an answer here:



  • continuity of power series

    1 answer



Let $(a_n)_n in mathbbN$ be an infinite positive sequence of integers.
Assume that $f(lambda) = sumlimits_n=0^infty a_n lambda^n$ is finite for any $lambda in [0, lambda_0)$. Does this necessarily imply that $f(lambda)$ is also continuous in $(0, lambda_0)$, or might something strange happen?





This question already has an answer here:



  • continuity of power series

    1 answer









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 3 at 19:08
























asked Aug 3 at 19:04









QuantumLogarithm

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marked as duplicate by mathcounterexamples.net, Hans Lundmark, Math1000, max_zorn, Xander Henderson Aug 4 at 2:05


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.






marked as duplicate by mathcounterexamples.net, Hans Lundmark, Math1000, max_zorn, Xander Henderson Aug 4 at 2:05


This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.









  • 1




    Yes, it is continuous. It is in fact analytic.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 3 at 19:07







  • 1




    (For positive $a_n$ this is easy, because you very easily establish have uniform bounds, so you can apply Weierstrass M-test.)
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 3 at 19:09










  • Thank you. Is there a theorem I can cite without a proof being required?
    – QuantumLogarithm
    Aug 3 at 19:37






  • 1




    Two results :(1). From the details of the proof of the Cauchy-Hadamard Radius Formula ( sometimes called the Hadamard Radius Formula) we can easily show that the sequence $(sum_n=0^ja_n x^n)_jin Bbb N$ converges uniformly on any closed subset of $D=z$....(2). A uniform limit of a sequence of continuous real or complex functions on $D$ is continuous.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 3 at 19:49













  • 1




    Yes, it is continuous. It is in fact analytic.
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 3 at 19:07







  • 1




    (For positive $a_n$ this is easy, because you very easily establish have uniform bounds, so you can apply Weierstrass M-test.)
    – Andrés E. Caicedo
    Aug 3 at 19:09










  • Thank you. Is there a theorem I can cite without a proof being required?
    – QuantumLogarithm
    Aug 3 at 19:37






  • 1




    Two results :(1). From the details of the proof of the Cauchy-Hadamard Radius Formula ( sometimes called the Hadamard Radius Formula) we can easily show that the sequence $(sum_n=0^ja_n x^n)_jin Bbb N$ converges uniformly on any closed subset of $D=z$....(2). A uniform limit of a sequence of continuous real or complex functions on $D$ is continuous.
    – DanielWainfleet
    Aug 3 at 19:49








1




1




Yes, it is continuous. It is in fact analytic.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Aug 3 at 19:07





Yes, it is continuous. It is in fact analytic.
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Aug 3 at 19:07





1




1




(For positive $a_n$ this is easy, because you very easily establish have uniform bounds, so you can apply Weierstrass M-test.)
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Aug 3 at 19:09




(For positive $a_n$ this is easy, because you very easily establish have uniform bounds, so you can apply Weierstrass M-test.)
– Andrés E. Caicedo
Aug 3 at 19:09












Thank you. Is there a theorem I can cite without a proof being required?
– QuantumLogarithm
Aug 3 at 19:37




Thank you. Is there a theorem I can cite without a proof being required?
– QuantumLogarithm
Aug 3 at 19:37




1




1




Two results :(1). From the details of the proof of the Cauchy-Hadamard Radius Formula ( sometimes called the Hadamard Radius Formula) we can easily show that the sequence $(sum_n=0^ja_n x^n)_jin Bbb N$ converges uniformly on any closed subset of $D=z$....(2). A uniform limit of a sequence of continuous real or complex functions on $D$ is continuous.
– DanielWainfleet
Aug 3 at 19:49





Two results :(1). From the details of the proof of the Cauchy-Hadamard Radius Formula ( sometimes called the Hadamard Radius Formula) we can easily show that the sequence $(sum_n=0^ja_n x^n)_jin Bbb N$ converges uniformly on any closed subset of $D=z$....(2). A uniform limit of a sequence of continuous real or complex functions on $D$ is continuous.
– DanielWainfleet
Aug 3 at 19:49











1 Answer
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If your series converges for $lambda=r$, then it converges uniformly for all $lambdain(-r,r)$. This is because for such $lambda$
$$
sum_n>ma_n|lambda|^nleqsum_n>ma_nr^nxrightarrow[mtoinfty]0.
$$



So $f(lambda)$ is a uniform limit of polynomials. And a uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous.



Your function is in fact a lot more than continuous. It is analytic.






share|cite|improve this answer




























    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    1
    down vote



    accepted










    If your series converges for $lambda=r$, then it converges uniformly for all $lambdain(-r,r)$. This is because for such $lambda$
    $$
    sum_n>ma_n|lambda|^nleqsum_n>ma_nr^nxrightarrow[mtoinfty]0.
    $$



    So $f(lambda)$ is a uniform limit of polynomials. And a uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous.



    Your function is in fact a lot more than continuous. It is analytic.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      If your series converges for $lambda=r$, then it converges uniformly for all $lambdain(-r,r)$. This is because for such $lambda$
      $$
      sum_n>ma_n|lambda|^nleqsum_n>ma_nr^nxrightarrow[mtoinfty]0.
      $$



      So $f(lambda)$ is a uniform limit of polynomials. And a uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous.



      Your function is in fact a lot more than continuous. It is analytic.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        1
        down vote



        accepted






        If your series converges for $lambda=r$, then it converges uniformly for all $lambdain(-r,r)$. This is because for such $lambda$
        $$
        sum_n>ma_n|lambda|^nleqsum_n>ma_nr^nxrightarrow[mtoinfty]0.
        $$



        So $f(lambda)$ is a uniform limit of polynomials. And a uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous.



        Your function is in fact a lot more than continuous. It is analytic.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        If your series converges for $lambda=r$, then it converges uniformly for all $lambdain(-r,r)$. This is because for such $lambda$
        $$
        sum_n>ma_n|lambda|^nleqsum_n>ma_nr^nxrightarrow[mtoinfty]0.
        $$



        So $f(lambda)$ is a uniform limit of polynomials. And a uniform limit of continuous functions is continuous.



        Your function is in fact a lot more than continuous. It is analytic.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Aug 3 at 22:44









        Martin Argerami

        115k1071164




        115k1071164












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