G1, G2 finite groups such as for all prime p, p-sylow subgroups of G1 isomorpic ($cong$) to p-sylow subgroups of G2 and |G1|=|G2| then G1$cong$G2.

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Decide whether the following staement is true of false. If true, prove it. If false, provide a counterexample



Let G1, G2 be a finite groups such as for all prime p, p-sylow subgroups of G1 isomorpic ($cong$) to p-sylow subgroups of G2 and |G1|=|G2| then G1$cong$G2.



I think this statement is false but I didn't find counterexample yet, I think it's false because I thought about dividing the group to p-sylow subgroups or write her has a direct product of them and then do a uoion or direct product of the isomorphisms but there is no diviton og G1 and G2 to her p-sylow so I couldn't prove it so I tried to find counterexample but I didn't find one.

If you found one please help me :)







share|cite|improve this question





















  • It might help (and it would probably go some way to avoiding close votes) if you could articulate why you think the statement is false.
    – Brian Tung
    Jul 27 at 5:06










  • thank you I tried to explain I hope it's ok
    – user579852
    Jul 27 at 5:40






  • 4




    Think about groups of order $6$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 27 at 6:01






  • 1




    Terribly non informative title.
    – Did
    Jul 27 at 6:18










  • I thought about what you said but how I can prove that every p-sylow subgroup of $G_1$ isomorpic to p-sylow subgroup of $G_2$??
    – user579852
    Jul 31 at 11:56














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Decide whether the following staement is true of false. If true, prove it. If false, provide a counterexample



Let G1, G2 be a finite groups such as for all prime p, p-sylow subgroups of G1 isomorpic ($cong$) to p-sylow subgroups of G2 and |G1|=|G2| then G1$cong$G2.



I think this statement is false but I didn't find counterexample yet, I think it's false because I thought about dividing the group to p-sylow subgroups or write her has a direct product of them and then do a uoion or direct product of the isomorphisms but there is no diviton og G1 and G2 to her p-sylow so I couldn't prove it so I tried to find counterexample but I didn't find one.

If you found one please help me :)







share|cite|improve this question





















  • It might help (and it would probably go some way to avoiding close votes) if you could articulate why you think the statement is false.
    – Brian Tung
    Jul 27 at 5:06










  • thank you I tried to explain I hope it's ok
    – user579852
    Jul 27 at 5:40






  • 4




    Think about groups of order $6$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 27 at 6:01






  • 1




    Terribly non informative title.
    – Did
    Jul 27 at 6:18










  • I thought about what you said but how I can prove that every p-sylow subgroup of $G_1$ isomorpic to p-sylow subgroup of $G_2$??
    – user579852
    Jul 31 at 11:56












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Decide whether the following staement is true of false. If true, prove it. If false, provide a counterexample



Let G1, G2 be a finite groups such as for all prime p, p-sylow subgroups of G1 isomorpic ($cong$) to p-sylow subgroups of G2 and |G1|=|G2| then G1$cong$G2.



I think this statement is false but I didn't find counterexample yet, I think it's false because I thought about dividing the group to p-sylow subgroups or write her has a direct product of them and then do a uoion or direct product of the isomorphisms but there is no diviton og G1 and G2 to her p-sylow so I couldn't prove it so I tried to find counterexample but I didn't find one.

If you found one please help me :)







share|cite|improve this question













Decide whether the following staement is true of false. If true, prove it. If false, provide a counterexample



Let G1, G2 be a finite groups such as for all prime p, p-sylow subgroups of G1 isomorpic ($cong$) to p-sylow subgroups of G2 and |G1|=|G2| then G1$cong$G2.



I think this statement is false but I didn't find counterexample yet, I think it's false because I thought about dividing the group to p-sylow subgroups or write her has a direct product of them and then do a uoion or direct product of the isomorphisms but there is no diviton og G1 and G2 to her p-sylow so I couldn't prove it so I tried to find counterexample but I didn't find one.

If you found one please help me :)









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 27 at 9:04
























asked Jul 27 at 4:56









user579852

305




305











  • It might help (and it would probably go some way to avoiding close votes) if you could articulate why you think the statement is false.
    – Brian Tung
    Jul 27 at 5:06










  • thank you I tried to explain I hope it's ok
    – user579852
    Jul 27 at 5:40






  • 4




    Think about groups of order $6$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 27 at 6:01






  • 1




    Terribly non informative title.
    – Did
    Jul 27 at 6:18










  • I thought about what you said but how I can prove that every p-sylow subgroup of $G_1$ isomorpic to p-sylow subgroup of $G_2$??
    – user579852
    Jul 31 at 11:56
















  • It might help (and it would probably go some way to avoiding close votes) if you could articulate why you think the statement is false.
    – Brian Tung
    Jul 27 at 5:06










  • thank you I tried to explain I hope it's ok
    – user579852
    Jul 27 at 5:40






  • 4




    Think about groups of order $6$.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 27 at 6:01






  • 1




    Terribly non informative title.
    – Did
    Jul 27 at 6:18










  • I thought about what you said but how I can prove that every p-sylow subgroup of $G_1$ isomorpic to p-sylow subgroup of $G_2$??
    – user579852
    Jul 31 at 11:56















It might help (and it would probably go some way to avoiding close votes) if you could articulate why you think the statement is false.
– Brian Tung
Jul 27 at 5:06




It might help (and it would probably go some way to avoiding close votes) if you could articulate why you think the statement is false.
– Brian Tung
Jul 27 at 5:06












thank you I tried to explain I hope it's ok
– user579852
Jul 27 at 5:40




thank you I tried to explain I hope it's ok
– user579852
Jul 27 at 5:40




4




4




Think about groups of order $6$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 27 at 6:01




Think about groups of order $6$.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 27 at 6:01




1




1




Terribly non informative title.
– Did
Jul 27 at 6:18




Terribly non informative title.
– Did
Jul 27 at 6:18












I thought about what you said but how I can prove that every p-sylow subgroup of $G_1$ isomorpic to p-sylow subgroup of $G_2$??
– user579852
Jul 31 at 11:56




I thought about what you said but how I can prove that every p-sylow subgroup of $G_1$ isomorpic to p-sylow subgroup of $G_2$??
– user579852
Jul 31 at 11:56















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