Is the given function is Riemann integrable or not reimann integrable ??
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Is the given function is Riemann integrable or not Riemann integrable on the interval $[0,1] $?
$$ f (x)=begincases cos x quad textifquad x in [0,frac12] \ sin x quad text if quad x in (frac12,1]endcases $$
My attempts: I know that $f$ will continuous when $cos x =sin x$ by putting $x = pi/4$. I'm confused that here $x = pi/4 $ is not given. Now how can I conclude that it is Riemann integrable or not ?
Any Hints/solution will be appreciated.
Thank you.
real-analysis
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up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Is the given function is Riemann integrable or not Riemann integrable on the interval $[0,1] $?
$$ f (x)=begincases cos x quad textifquad x in [0,frac12] \ sin x quad text if quad x in (frac12,1]endcases $$
My attempts: I know that $f$ will continuous when $cos x =sin x$ by putting $x = pi/4$. I'm confused that here $x = pi/4 $ is not given. Now how can I conclude that it is Riemann integrable or not ?
Any Hints/solution will be appreciated.
Thank you.
real-analysis
2
There's a jump discontinuity but otherwise the fact that the function is continuous at every other point should tell you it's integrable
– Spencer
Aug 2 at 17:25
The function is continuous almost everywhere (you have only a point of discontinuity) so the function is riemann integrable
– Cuoredicervo
Aug 2 at 17:28
@Cuoredicervo..how the Function is continious almost everywhere..can elaboarate more
– stupid
Aug 2 at 17:47
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Is the given function is Riemann integrable or not Riemann integrable on the interval $[0,1] $?
$$ f (x)=begincases cos x quad textifquad x in [0,frac12] \ sin x quad text if quad x in (frac12,1]endcases $$
My attempts: I know that $f$ will continuous when $cos x =sin x$ by putting $x = pi/4$. I'm confused that here $x = pi/4 $ is not given. Now how can I conclude that it is Riemann integrable or not ?
Any Hints/solution will be appreciated.
Thank you.
real-analysis
Is the given function is Riemann integrable or not Riemann integrable on the interval $[0,1] $?
$$ f (x)=begincases cos x quad textifquad x in [0,frac12] \ sin x quad text if quad x in (frac12,1]endcases $$
My attempts: I know that $f$ will continuous when $cos x =sin x$ by putting $x = pi/4$. I'm confused that here $x = pi/4 $ is not given. Now how can I conclude that it is Riemann integrable or not ?
Any Hints/solution will be appreciated.
Thank you.
real-analysis
edited Aug 2 at 17:22
asked Aug 2 at 17:10
stupid
50018
50018
2
There's a jump discontinuity but otherwise the fact that the function is continuous at every other point should tell you it's integrable
– Spencer
Aug 2 at 17:25
The function is continuous almost everywhere (you have only a point of discontinuity) so the function is riemann integrable
– Cuoredicervo
Aug 2 at 17:28
@Cuoredicervo..how the Function is continious almost everywhere..can elaboarate more
– stupid
Aug 2 at 17:47
add a comment |Â
2
There's a jump discontinuity but otherwise the fact that the function is continuous at every other point should tell you it's integrable
– Spencer
Aug 2 at 17:25
The function is continuous almost everywhere (you have only a point of discontinuity) so the function is riemann integrable
– Cuoredicervo
Aug 2 at 17:28
@Cuoredicervo..how the Function is continious almost everywhere..can elaboarate more
– stupid
Aug 2 at 17:47
2
2
There's a jump discontinuity but otherwise the fact that the function is continuous at every other point should tell you it's integrable
– Spencer
Aug 2 at 17:25
There's a jump discontinuity but otherwise the fact that the function is continuous at every other point should tell you it's integrable
– Spencer
Aug 2 at 17:25
The function is continuous almost everywhere (you have only a point of discontinuity) so the function is riemann integrable
– Cuoredicervo
Aug 2 at 17:28
The function is continuous almost everywhere (you have only a point of discontinuity) so the function is riemann integrable
– Cuoredicervo
Aug 2 at 17:28
@Cuoredicervo..how the Function is continious almost everywhere..can elaboarate more
– stupid
Aug 2 at 17:47
@Cuoredicervo..how the Function is continious almost everywhere..can elaboarate more
– stupid
Aug 2 at 17:47
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
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accepted
The measure theory approach here is a bit of overkill I think. Let $epsilon>0.$ Let $n>2.$ Choose partitions $P_n$ of $[0,1/2-1/n]$ and $Q_n$ of $[1/2+1/n,1]$ such that
$$U(P_n,f)-L(P_n,f)<epsilon,,,U(Q_n,f)-L(Q_n,f)<epsilon.$$
Then $R_n=P_ncup Q_n$ is a partition of $[0,1],$ and
$$tag 1 U(R_n,f)-L(R_n,f) < epsilon + (C_n-c_n)frac2n + epsilon.$$
Here $C_n,c_n$ are the $sup, inf$ of $f$ over $[1/2-1/n,1/2+1/n].$ The Riemann integrability of $f$ on $[0,1]$ follows.
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I assume that you've learned about Darboux theory. Then $f$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ iff there exists a partition of $[a,b]$ whose sum of oscillation $sum_1^n omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon$. Then for the $f$ in the post, the integrability of $f$ on $[0, 1/2]$ and $[1/2, 1]$ implies the existence of partitions $mathcal P_1, mathcal P_2$ of each interval where the sum $sum_mathcal P_k omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon/2 [k = 1,2]$. Then the partition of $[0,1]$ formed by union of the partitions above, whose sum $sum omega_j varDelta x_j = sum_mathcal P_1 + sum_mathcal P_2 < varepsilon$.
The comments has referred to following facts:
Definition. $f$ is continuous almost everywhere on the interval $[a, b]$ if for each $varepsilon >0$ the discontinuity of $f$ could be covered by an at most countable collection of open intervals $(I_j)_1^infty$ with total length less than $varepsilon$.
Theorem. $fboxLebesgue criterion$ $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b]$ iff $f$ is bounded and $f$ is almost everywhere continuous on $[a,b ]$ [Proof omitted].
Now $f$ only has one discontinuity, which could be covered by one open interval with length $varepsilon $ as small as possible. Hence the integrability.
add a comment |Â
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The measure theory approach here is a bit of overkill I think. Let $epsilon>0.$ Let $n>2.$ Choose partitions $P_n$ of $[0,1/2-1/n]$ and $Q_n$ of $[1/2+1/n,1]$ such that
$$U(P_n,f)-L(P_n,f)<epsilon,,,U(Q_n,f)-L(Q_n,f)<epsilon.$$
Then $R_n=P_ncup Q_n$ is a partition of $[0,1],$ and
$$tag 1 U(R_n,f)-L(R_n,f) < epsilon + (C_n-c_n)frac2n + epsilon.$$
Here $C_n,c_n$ are the $sup, inf$ of $f$ over $[1/2-1/n,1/2+1/n].$ The Riemann integrability of $f$ on $[0,1]$ follows.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The measure theory approach here is a bit of overkill I think. Let $epsilon>0.$ Let $n>2.$ Choose partitions $P_n$ of $[0,1/2-1/n]$ and $Q_n$ of $[1/2+1/n,1]$ such that
$$U(P_n,f)-L(P_n,f)<epsilon,,,U(Q_n,f)-L(Q_n,f)<epsilon.$$
Then $R_n=P_ncup Q_n$ is a partition of $[0,1],$ and
$$tag 1 U(R_n,f)-L(R_n,f) < epsilon + (C_n-c_n)frac2n + epsilon.$$
Here $C_n,c_n$ are the $sup, inf$ of $f$ over $[1/2-1/n,1/2+1/n].$ The Riemann integrability of $f$ on $[0,1]$ follows.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
The measure theory approach here is a bit of overkill I think. Let $epsilon>0.$ Let $n>2.$ Choose partitions $P_n$ of $[0,1/2-1/n]$ and $Q_n$ of $[1/2+1/n,1]$ such that
$$U(P_n,f)-L(P_n,f)<epsilon,,,U(Q_n,f)-L(Q_n,f)<epsilon.$$
Then $R_n=P_ncup Q_n$ is a partition of $[0,1],$ and
$$tag 1 U(R_n,f)-L(R_n,f) < epsilon + (C_n-c_n)frac2n + epsilon.$$
Here $C_n,c_n$ are the $sup, inf$ of $f$ over $[1/2-1/n,1/2+1/n].$ The Riemann integrability of $f$ on $[0,1]$ follows.
The measure theory approach here is a bit of overkill I think. Let $epsilon>0.$ Let $n>2.$ Choose partitions $P_n$ of $[0,1/2-1/n]$ and $Q_n$ of $[1/2+1/n,1]$ such that
$$U(P_n,f)-L(P_n,f)<epsilon,,,U(Q_n,f)-L(Q_n,f)<epsilon.$$
Then $R_n=P_ncup Q_n$ is a partition of $[0,1],$ and
$$tag 1 U(R_n,f)-L(R_n,f) < epsilon + (C_n-c_n)frac2n + epsilon.$$
Here $C_n,c_n$ are the $sup, inf$ of $f$ over $[1/2-1/n,1/2+1/n].$ The Riemann integrability of $f$ on $[0,1]$ follows.
edited Aug 3 at 16:59
answered Aug 3 at 16:40


zhw.
65.1k42769
65.1k42769
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add a comment |Â
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I assume that you've learned about Darboux theory. Then $f$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ iff there exists a partition of $[a,b]$ whose sum of oscillation $sum_1^n omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon$. Then for the $f$ in the post, the integrability of $f$ on $[0, 1/2]$ and $[1/2, 1]$ implies the existence of partitions $mathcal P_1, mathcal P_2$ of each interval where the sum $sum_mathcal P_k omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon/2 [k = 1,2]$. Then the partition of $[0,1]$ formed by union of the partitions above, whose sum $sum omega_j varDelta x_j = sum_mathcal P_1 + sum_mathcal P_2 < varepsilon$.
The comments has referred to following facts:
Definition. $f$ is continuous almost everywhere on the interval $[a, b]$ if for each $varepsilon >0$ the discontinuity of $f$ could be covered by an at most countable collection of open intervals $(I_j)_1^infty$ with total length less than $varepsilon$.
Theorem. $fboxLebesgue criterion$ $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b]$ iff $f$ is bounded and $f$ is almost everywhere continuous on $[a,b ]$ [Proof omitted].
Now $f$ only has one discontinuity, which could be covered by one open interval with length $varepsilon $ as small as possible. Hence the integrability.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
I assume that you've learned about Darboux theory. Then $f$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ iff there exists a partition of $[a,b]$ whose sum of oscillation $sum_1^n omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon$. Then for the $f$ in the post, the integrability of $f$ on $[0, 1/2]$ and $[1/2, 1]$ implies the existence of partitions $mathcal P_1, mathcal P_2$ of each interval where the sum $sum_mathcal P_k omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon/2 [k = 1,2]$. Then the partition of $[0,1]$ formed by union of the partitions above, whose sum $sum omega_j varDelta x_j = sum_mathcal P_1 + sum_mathcal P_2 < varepsilon$.
The comments has referred to following facts:
Definition. $f$ is continuous almost everywhere on the interval $[a, b]$ if for each $varepsilon >0$ the discontinuity of $f$ could be covered by an at most countable collection of open intervals $(I_j)_1^infty$ with total length less than $varepsilon$.
Theorem. $fboxLebesgue criterion$ $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b]$ iff $f$ is bounded and $f$ is almost everywhere continuous on $[a,b ]$ [Proof omitted].
Now $f$ only has one discontinuity, which could be covered by one open interval with length $varepsilon $ as small as possible. Hence the integrability.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
I assume that you've learned about Darboux theory. Then $f$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ iff there exists a partition of $[a,b]$ whose sum of oscillation $sum_1^n omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon$. Then for the $f$ in the post, the integrability of $f$ on $[0, 1/2]$ and $[1/2, 1]$ implies the existence of partitions $mathcal P_1, mathcal P_2$ of each interval where the sum $sum_mathcal P_k omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon/2 [k = 1,2]$. Then the partition of $[0,1]$ formed by union of the partitions above, whose sum $sum omega_j varDelta x_j = sum_mathcal P_1 + sum_mathcal P_2 < varepsilon$.
The comments has referred to following facts:
Definition. $f$ is continuous almost everywhere on the interval $[a, b]$ if for each $varepsilon >0$ the discontinuity of $f$ could be covered by an at most countable collection of open intervals $(I_j)_1^infty$ with total length less than $varepsilon$.
Theorem. $fboxLebesgue criterion$ $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b]$ iff $f$ is bounded and $f$ is almost everywhere continuous on $[a,b ]$ [Proof omitted].
Now $f$ only has one discontinuity, which could be covered by one open interval with length $varepsilon $ as small as possible. Hence the integrability.
I assume that you've learned about Darboux theory. Then $f$ is integrable on $[a,b]$ iff there exists a partition of $[a,b]$ whose sum of oscillation $sum_1^n omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon$. Then for the $f$ in the post, the integrability of $f$ on $[0, 1/2]$ and $[1/2, 1]$ implies the existence of partitions $mathcal P_1, mathcal P_2$ of each interval where the sum $sum_mathcal P_k omega_j varDelta x_j < varepsilon/2 [k = 1,2]$. Then the partition of $[0,1]$ formed by union of the partitions above, whose sum $sum omega_j varDelta x_j = sum_mathcal P_1 + sum_mathcal P_2 < varepsilon$.
The comments has referred to following facts:
Definition. $f$ is continuous almost everywhere on the interval $[a, b]$ if for each $varepsilon >0$ the discontinuity of $f$ could be covered by an at most countable collection of open intervals $(I_j)_1^infty$ with total length less than $varepsilon$.
Theorem. $fboxLebesgue criterion$ $f$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b]$ iff $f$ is bounded and $f$ is almost everywhere continuous on $[a,b ]$ [Proof omitted].
Now $f$ only has one discontinuity, which could be covered by one open interval with length $varepsilon $ as small as possible. Hence the integrability.
edited Aug 3 at 2:19
answered Aug 3 at 2:03
xbh
1,0006
1,0006
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2
There's a jump discontinuity but otherwise the fact that the function is continuous at every other point should tell you it's integrable
– Spencer
Aug 2 at 17:25
The function is continuous almost everywhere (you have only a point of discontinuity) so the function is riemann integrable
– Cuoredicervo
Aug 2 at 17:28
@Cuoredicervo..how the Function is continious almost everywhere..can elaboarate more
– stupid
Aug 2 at 17:47