Limit of a quotient of factorials

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I want to find the limit of $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!$$ for an arbitrary integer $k$. I have done several simulations for $k=5$ or $k=3$, the limit is zero in these cases.



I have tried to proof this, but the $k-th$ power gives me a headache. Is there any way to show this rigorously?







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    up vote
    2
    down vote

    favorite












    I want to find the limit of $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!$$ for an arbitrary integer $k$. I have done several simulations for $k=5$ or $k=3$, the limit is zero in these cases.



    I have tried to proof this, but the $k-th$ power gives me a headache. Is there any way to show this rigorously?







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      2
      down vote

      favorite











      I want to find the limit of $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!$$ for an arbitrary integer $k$. I have done several simulations for $k=5$ or $k=3$, the limit is zero in these cases.



      I have tried to proof this, but the $k-th$ power gives me a headache. Is there any way to show this rigorously?







      share|cite|improve this question











      I want to find the limit of $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!$$ for an arbitrary integer $k$. I have done several simulations for $k=5$ or $k=3$, the limit is zero in these cases.



      I have tried to proof this, but the $k-th$ power gives me a headache. Is there any way to show this rigorously?









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Aug 2 at 21:46









      quallenjäger

      462419




      462419




















          3 Answers
          3






          active

          oldest

          votes

















          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          For $k=1$ we have



          $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=lim_ntoinftyfrac(2n)!(2n)!=1$$



          and for $kge 2$ by ratio test we have



          $$frac((2n+2)!)^k((2n+2)k+k-1)!frac(2nk+k-1)!((2n)!)^k=frac(2n+2)^k(2n+1)^k(2nk+3k-1)ldots(2nk+k)<$$



          $$<frac(2n+2)^2k(2nk+k)^2kto k^-2k<1$$



          therefore



          $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=0$$






          share|cite|improve this answer



















          • 2




            As $ntoinfty$, the last expression converges to $k^-2k$.
            – Julián Aguirre
            Aug 2 at 22:05










          • @JuliánAguirre Yes of course, I had in mind the final result for the limit. I fix that point! Thanks
            – gimusi
            Aug 2 at 22:07











          • @gimusi Thank you, that's a clever proof.
            – quallenjäger
            Aug 2 at 22:10











          • @quallenjäger You are welcome! Bye...and thanks again to Julian for pointing out my fault!
            – gimusi
            Aug 2 at 22:11

















          up vote
          2
          down vote













          Considering $$A=frac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!implies log(A)=k log((2n)!)-log((2nk+k-1)!)$$ Now, use Stirling approximation
          $$log(p!)=p (log (p)-1)+frac12 left(log (2 pi )+log
          left(pright)right)+frac112 p+Oleft(frac1p^3right)$$
          Apply it and continue with Taylor expansions to get
          $$log(A)=-2 n (k log (k))-frac12 left(log left(kright)+(k-1) left(2
          log (k)-log left(fracpi nright)right)right)+Oleft(frac1nright)$$ So, basically
          $$A sim k^-2 k n$$



          Edit



          Following your question in comments, the next level of approximation would be
          $$A=pi ^frack-12 k^-2 k n left(frac1k^2 nright)^k/2 sqrtk n+Oleft(frac1nright)$$



          Uisng $k=10$ and $n=20$, the first approximation gives $10^-400$ while the new one gives $approx 7.63times 10^-414$ for an exact value $approx 6.97times 10^-414$






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • So the quotient converges with a speed of $k^-2kn$? If I mutiple the quotient with $k^-2kn$, then the limit of the quotient will not be zero?
            – quallenjäger
            Aug 3 at 9:32










          • @quallenjäger. It is more complex than that. I suppose that you wanted to divide the result by $k^-2kn$. Let me see if I can find a better approximation.
            – Claude Leibovici
            Aug 3 at 10:15










          • Yes sorry, I meant to multiply to avoid the limit being zero.
            – quallenjäger
            Aug 3 at 10:16

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          $lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!
          $



          Let's start with a simpler,
          larger quotient
          using Stirling
          in the form
          $n!
          approx sqrtcn(n/e)^n$.



          $beginarray\
          dfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk)!
          &approx dfrac(sqrt2cn(2n/e)^2n)^ksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
          &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n/e)^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
          &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n)^2nk/e^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk)^2nk/e^2nk\
          &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2sqrt2cnk(k)^2nk\
          &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/2k^2nright)^k\
          &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
          &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrace^ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
          &< dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac1+ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn
          qquadtextsince e^x le 1+2xtext for 0 le x le 1\
          &to 0
          qquadtextfor k gt 1\
          endarray
          $






          share|cite|improve this answer





















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            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes








            3 Answers
            3






            active

            oldest

            votes









            active

            oldest

            votes






            active

            oldest

            votes








            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted










            For $k=1$ we have



            $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=lim_ntoinftyfrac(2n)!(2n)!=1$$



            and for $kge 2$ by ratio test we have



            $$frac((2n+2)!)^k((2n+2)k+k-1)!frac(2nk+k-1)!((2n)!)^k=frac(2n+2)^k(2n+1)^k(2nk+3k-1)ldots(2nk+k)<$$



            $$<frac(2n+2)^2k(2nk+k)^2kto k^-2k<1$$



            therefore



            $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=0$$






            share|cite|improve this answer



















            • 2




              As $ntoinfty$, the last expression converges to $k^-2k$.
              – Julián Aguirre
              Aug 2 at 22:05










            • @JuliánAguirre Yes of course, I had in mind the final result for the limit. I fix that point! Thanks
              – gimusi
              Aug 2 at 22:07











            • @gimusi Thank you, that's a clever proof.
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 2 at 22:10











            • @quallenjäger You are welcome! Bye...and thanks again to Julian for pointing out my fault!
              – gimusi
              Aug 2 at 22:11














            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted










            For $k=1$ we have



            $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=lim_ntoinftyfrac(2n)!(2n)!=1$$



            and for $kge 2$ by ratio test we have



            $$frac((2n+2)!)^k((2n+2)k+k-1)!frac(2nk+k-1)!((2n)!)^k=frac(2n+2)^k(2n+1)^k(2nk+3k-1)ldots(2nk+k)<$$



            $$<frac(2n+2)^2k(2nk+k)^2kto k^-2k<1$$



            therefore



            $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=0$$






            share|cite|improve this answer



















            • 2




              As $ntoinfty$, the last expression converges to $k^-2k$.
              – Julián Aguirre
              Aug 2 at 22:05










            • @JuliánAguirre Yes of course, I had in mind the final result for the limit. I fix that point! Thanks
              – gimusi
              Aug 2 at 22:07











            • @gimusi Thank you, that's a clever proof.
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 2 at 22:10











            • @quallenjäger You are welcome! Bye...and thanks again to Julian for pointing out my fault!
              – gimusi
              Aug 2 at 22:11












            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted







            up vote
            4
            down vote



            accepted






            For $k=1$ we have



            $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=lim_ntoinftyfrac(2n)!(2n)!=1$$



            and for $kge 2$ by ratio test we have



            $$frac((2n+2)!)^k((2n+2)k+k-1)!frac(2nk+k-1)!((2n)!)^k=frac(2n+2)^k(2n+1)^k(2nk+3k-1)ldots(2nk+k)<$$



            $$<frac(2n+2)^2k(2nk+k)^2kto k^-2k<1$$



            therefore



            $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=0$$






            share|cite|improve this answer















            For $k=1$ we have



            $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=lim_ntoinftyfrac(2n)!(2n)!=1$$



            and for $kge 2$ by ratio test we have



            $$frac((2n+2)!)^k((2n+2)k+k-1)!frac(2nk+k-1)!((2n)!)^k=frac(2n+2)^k(2n+1)^k(2nk+3k-1)ldots(2nk+k)<$$



            $$<frac(2n+2)^2k(2nk+k)^2kto k^-2k<1$$



            therefore



            $$lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!=0$$







            share|cite|improve this answer















            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 2 at 22:06


























            answered Aug 2 at 22:02









            gimusi

            63.8k73480




            63.8k73480







            • 2




              As $ntoinfty$, the last expression converges to $k^-2k$.
              – Julián Aguirre
              Aug 2 at 22:05










            • @JuliánAguirre Yes of course, I had in mind the final result for the limit. I fix that point! Thanks
              – gimusi
              Aug 2 at 22:07











            • @gimusi Thank you, that's a clever proof.
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 2 at 22:10











            • @quallenjäger You are welcome! Bye...and thanks again to Julian for pointing out my fault!
              – gimusi
              Aug 2 at 22:11












            • 2




              As $ntoinfty$, the last expression converges to $k^-2k$.
              – Julián Aguirre
              Aug 2 at 22:05










            • @JuliánAguirre Yes of course, I had in mind the final result for the limit. I fix that point! Thanks
              – gimusi
              Aug 2 at 22:07











            • @gimusi Thank you, that's a clever proof.
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 2 at 22:10











            • @quallenjäger You are welcome! Bye...and thanks again to Julian for pointing out my fault!
              – gimusi
              Aug 2 at 22:11







            2




            2




            As $ntoinfty$, the last expression converges to $k^-2k$.
            – Julián Aguirre
            Aug 2 at 22:05




            As $ntoinfty$, the last expression converges to $k^-2k$.
            – Julián Aguirre
            Aug 2 at 22:05












            @JuliánAguirre Yes of course, I had in mind the final result for the limit. I fix that point! Thanks
            – gimusi
            Aug 2 at 22:07





            @JuliánAguirre Yes of course, I had in mind the final result for the limit. I fix that point! Thanks
            – gimusi
            Aug 2 at 22:07













            @gimusi Thank you, that's a clever proof.
            – quallenjäger
            Aug 2 at 22:10





            @gimusi Thank you, that's a clever proof.
            – quallenjäger
            Aug 2 at 22:10













            @quallenjäger You are welcome! Bye...and thanks again to Julian for pointing out my fault!
            – gimusi
            Aug 2 at 22:11




            @quallenjäger You are welcome! Bye...and thanks again to Julian for pointing out my fault!
            – gimusi
            Aug 2 at 22:11










            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Considering $$A=frac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!implies log(A)=k log((2n)!)-log((2nk+k-1)!)$$ Now, use Stirling approximation
            $$log(p!)=p (log (p)-1)+frac12 left(log (2 pi )+log
            left(pright)right)+frac112 p+Oleft(frac1p^3right)$$
            Apply it and continue with Taylor expansions to get
            $$log(A)=-2 n (k log (k))-frac12 left(log left(kright)+(k-1) left(2
            log (k)-log left(fracpi nright)right)right)+Oleft(frac1nright)$$ So, basically
            $$A sim k^-2 k n$$



            Edit



            Following your question in comments, the next level of approximation would be
            $$A=pi ^frack-12 k^-2 k n left(frac1k^2 nright)^k/2 sqrtk n+Oleft(frac1nright)$$



            Uisng $k=10$ and $n=20$, the first approximation gives $10^-400$ while the new one gives $approx 7.63times 10^-414$ for an exact value $approx 6.97times 10^-414$






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • So the quotient converges with a speed of $k^-2kn$? If I mutiple the quotient with $k^-2kn$, then the limit of the quotient will not be zero?
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 3 at 9:32










            • @quallenjäger. It is more complex than that. I suppose that you wanted to divide the result by $k^-2kn$. Let me see if I can find a better approximation.
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 3 at 10:15










            • Yes sorry, I meant to multiply to avoid the limit being zero.
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 3 at 10:16














            up vote
            2
            down vote













            Considering $$A=frac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!implies log(A)=k log((2n)!)-log((2nk+k-1)!)$$ Now, use Stirling approximation
            $$log(p!)=p (log (p)-1)+frac12 left(log (2 pi )+log
            left(pright)right)+frac112 p+Oleft(frac1p^3right)$$
            Apply it and continue with Taylor expansions to get
            $$log(A)=-2 n (k log (k))-frac12 left(log left(kright)+(k-1) left(2
            log (k)-log left(fracpi nright)right)right)+Oleft(frac1nright)$$ So, basically
            $$A sim k^-2 k n$$



            Edit



            Following your question in comments, the next level of approximation would be
            $$A=pi ^frack-12 k^-2 k n left(frac1k^2 nright)^k/2 sqrtk n+Oleft(frac1nright)$$



            Uisng $k=10$ and $n=20$, the first approximation gives $10^-400$ while the new one gives $approx 7.63times 10^-414$ for an exact value $approx 6.97times 10^-414$






            share|cite|improve this answer























            • So the quotient converges with a speed of $k^-2kn$? If I mutiple the quotient with $k^-2kn$, then the limit of the quotient will not be zero?
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 3 at 9:32










            • @quallenjäger. It is more complex than that. I suppose that you wanted to divide the result by $k^-2kn$. Let me see if I can find a better approximation.
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 3 at 10:15










            • Yes sorry, I meant to multiply to avoid the limit being zero.
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 3 at 10:16












            up vote
            2
            down vote










            up vote
            2
            down vote









            Considering $$A=frac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!implies log(A)=k log((2n)!)-log((2nk+k-1)!)$$ Now, use Stirling approximation
            $$log(p!)=p (log (p)-1)+frac12 left(log (2 pi )+log
            left(pright)right)+frac112 p+Oleft(frac1p^3right)$$
            Apply it and continue with Taylor expansions to get
            $$log(A)=-2 n (k log (k))-frac12 left(log left(kright)+(k-1) left(2
            log (k)-log left(fracpi nright)right)right)+Oleft(frac1nright)$$ So, basically
            $$A sim k^-2 k n$$



            Edit



            Following your question in comments, the next level of approximation would be
            $$A=pi ^frack-12 k^-2 k n left(frac1k^2 nright)^k/2 sqrtk n+Oleft(frac1nright)$$



            Uisng $k=10$ and $n=20$, the first approximation gives $10^-400$ while the new one gives $approx 7.63times 10^-414$ for an exact value $approx 6.97times 10^-414$






            share|cite|improve this answer















            Considering $$A=frac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!implies log(A)=k log((2n)!)-log((2nk+k-1)!)$$ Now, use Stirling approximation
            $$log(p!)=p (log (p)-1)+frac12 left(log (2 pi )+log
            left(pright)right)+frac112 p+Oleft(frac1p^3right)$$
            Apply it and continue with Taylor expansions to get
            $$log(A)=-2 n (k log (k))-frac12 left(log left(kright)+(k-1) left(2
            log (k)-log left(fracpi nright)right)right)+Oleft(frac1nright)$$ So, basically
            $$A sim k^-2 k n$$



            Edit



            Following your question in comments, the next level of approximation would be
            $$A=pi ^frack-12 k^-2 k n left(frac1k^2 nright)^k/2 sqrtk n+Oleft(frac1nright)$$



            Uisng $k=10$ and $n=20$, the first approximation gives $10^-400$ while the new one gives $approx 7.63times 10^-414$ for an exact value $approx 6.97times 10^-414$







            share|cite|improve this answer















            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer








            edited Aug 3 at 10:39


























            answered Aug 3 at 4:05









            Claude Leibovici

            111k1054126




            111k1054126











            • So the quotient converges with a speed of $k^-2kn$? If I mutiple the quotient with $k^-2kn$, then the limit of the quotient will not be zero?
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 3 at 9:32










            • @quallenjäger. It is more complex than that. I suppose that you wanted to divide the result by $k^-2kn$. Let me see if I can find a better approximation.
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 3 at 10:15










            • Yes sorry, I meant to multiply to avoid the limit being zero.
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 3 at 10:16
















            • So the quotient converges with a speed of $k^-2kn$? If I mutiple the quotient with $k^-2kn$, then the limit of the quotient will not be zero?
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 3 at 9:32










            • @quallenjäger. It is more complex than that. I suppose that you wanted to divide the result by $k^-2kn$. Let me see if I can find a better approximation.
              – Claude Leibovici
              Aug 3 at 10:15










            • Yes sorry, I meant to multiply to avoid the limit being zero.
              – quallenjäger
              Aug 3 at 10:16















            So the quotient converges with a speed of $k^-2kn$? If I mutiple the quotient with $k^-2kn$, then the limit of the quotient will not be zero?
            – quallenjäger
            Aug 3 at 9:32




            So the quotient converges with a speed of $k^-2kn$? If I mutiple the quotient with $k^-2kn$, then the limit of the quotient will not be zero?
            – quallenjäger
            Aug 3 at 9:32












            @quallenjäger. It is more complex than that. I suppose that you wanted to divide the result by $k^-2kn$. Let me see if I can find a better approximation.
            – Claude Leibovici
            Aug 3 at 10:15




            @quallenjäger. It is more complex than that. I suppose that you wanted to divide the result by $k^-2kn$. Let me see if I can find a better approximation.
            – Claude Leibovici
            Aug 3 at 10:15












            Yes sorry, I meant to multiply to avoid the limit being zero.
            – quallenjäger
            Aug 3 at 10:16




            Yes sorry, I meant to multiply to avoid the limit being zero.
            – quallenjäger
            Aug 3 at 10:16










            up vote
            0
            down vote













            $lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!
            $



            Let's start with a simpler,
            larger quotient
            using Stirling
            in the form
            $n!
            approx sqrtcn(n/e)^n$.



            $beginarray\
            dfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk)!
            &approx dfrac(sqrt2cn(2n/e)^2n)^ksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
            &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n/e)^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
            &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n)^2nk/e^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk)^2nk/e^2nk\
            &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2sqrt2cnk(k)^2nk\
            &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/2k^2nright)^k\
            &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
            &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrace^ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
            &< dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac1+ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn
            qquadtextsince e^x le 1+2xtext for 0 le x le 1\
            &to 0
            qquadtextfor k gt 1\
            endarray
            $






            share|cite|improve this answer

























              up vote
              0
              down vote













              $lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!
              $



              Let's start with a simpler,
              larger quotient
              using Stirling
              in the form
              $n!
              approx sqrtcn(n/e)^n$.



              $beginarray\
              dfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk)!
              &approx dfrac(sqrt2cn(2n/e)^2n)^ksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
              &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n/e)^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
              &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n)^2nk/e^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk)^2nk/e^2nk\
              &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2sqrt2cnk(k)^2nk\
              &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/2k^2nright)^k\
              &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
              &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrace^ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
              &< dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac1+ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn
              qquadtextsince e^x le 1+2xtext for 0 le x le 1\
              &to 0
              qquadtextfor k gt 1\
              endarray
              $






              share|cite|improve this answer























                up vote
                0
                down vote










                up vote
                0
                down vote









                $lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!
                $



                Let's start with a simpler,
                larger quotient
                using Stirling
                in the form
                $n!
                approx sqrtcn(n/e)^n$.



                $beginarray\
                dfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk)!
                &approx dfrac(sqrt2cn(2n/e)^2n)^ksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
                &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n/e)^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
                &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n)^2nk/e^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk)^2nk/e^2nk\
                &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2sqrt2cnk(k)^2nk\
                &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/2k^2nright)^k\
                &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
                &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrace^ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
                &< dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac1+ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn
                qquadtextsince e^x le 1+2xtext for 0 le x le 1\
                &to 0
                qquadtextfor k gt 1\
                endarray
                $






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                $lim_ntoinftyfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk+k-1)!
                $



                Let's start with a simpler,
                larger quotient
                using Stirling
                in the form
                $n!
                approx sqrtcn(n/e)^n$.



                $beginarray\
                dfrac((2n)!)^k(2nk)!
                &approx dfrac(sqrt2cn(2n/e)^2n)^ksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
                &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n/e)^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk/e)^2nk\
                &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2(2n)^2nk/e^2nksqrt2cnk(2nk)^2nk/e^2nk\
                &= dfrac(2cn)^k/2sqrt2cnk(k)^2nk\
                &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/2k^2nright)^k\
                &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac(2cn)^1/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
                &= dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrace^ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn\
                &< dfrac1sqrt2cnkleft(dfrac1+ln(2cn)/(2n)k^2right)^kn
                qquadtextsince e^x le 1+2xtext for 0 le x le 1\
                &to 0
                qquadtextfor k gt 1\
                endarray
                $







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                answered Aug 2 at 22:30









                marty cohen

                69k446122




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