Limit of a quotient.

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Let $X$ a metric space, $E subseteq X$ and $p$ be a limit point of $E$. Let $f,g: E subseteq X to mathbbC$ be functions. In Rudin and Apostol's books, I read the following:



Let $$fracfg: Z:=x in E: g(x) neq 0 to mathbbC: x mapsto fracf(x)g(x)$$



Let $A = lim_x to p f(x), B = lim_x to p g(x)$



Then $$lim_x to p left(fracfgright)(x) = fracAB$$




How are we sure that the limit makes sense? I.e., how do we know that
$p$ is a limit point of $Z$ as well?








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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    Let $X$ a metric space, $E subseteq X$ and $p$ be a limit point of $E$. Let $f,g: E subseteq X to mathbbC$ be functions. In Rudin and Apostol's books, I read the following:



    Let $$fracfg: Z:=x in E: g(x) neq 0 to mathbbC: x mapsto fracf(x)g(x)$$



    Let $A = lim_x to p f(x), B = lim_x to p g(x)$



    Then $$lim_x to p left(fracfgright)(x) = fracAB$$




    How are we sure that the limit makes sense? I.e., how do we know that
    $p$ is a limit point of $Z$ as well?








    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $X$ a metric space, $E subseteq X$ and $p$ be a limit point of $E$. Let $f,g: E subseteq X to mathbbC$ be functions. In Rudin and Apostol's books, I read the following:



      Let $$fracfg: Z:=x in E: g(x) neq 0 to mathbbC: x mapsto fracf(x)g(x)$$



      Let $A = lim_x to p f(x), B = lim_x to p g(x)$



      Then $$lim_x to p left(fracfgright)(x) = fracAB$$




      How are we sure that the limit makes sense? I.e., how do we know that
      $p$ is a limit point of $Z$ as well?








      share|cite|improve this question











      Let $X$ a metric space, $E subseteq X$ and $p$ be a limit point of $E$. Let $f,g: E subseteq X to mathbbC$ be functions. In Rudin and Apostol's books, I read the following:



      Let $$fracfg: Z:=x in E: g(x) neq 0 to mathbbC: x mapsto fracf(x)g(x)$$



      Let $A = lim_x to p f(x), B = lim_x to p g(x)$



      Then $$lim_x to p left(fracfgright)(x) = fracAB$$




      How are we sure that the limit makes sense? I.e., how do we know that
      $p$ is a limit point of $Z$ as well?










      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Jul 26 at 7:33









      Math_QED

      6,34831344




      6,34831344




















          1 Answer
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          We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.



          If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
            – Math_QED
            Jul 26 at 7:46






          • 1




            If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
            – Fred
            Jul 26 at 7:50











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.



          If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
            – Math_QED
            Jul 26 at 7:46






          • 1




            If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
            – Fred
            Jul 26 at 7:50















          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.



          If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
            – Math_QED
            Jul 26 at 7:46






          • 1




            If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
            – Fred
            Jul 26 at 7:50













          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.



          If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.



          If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 26 at 7:38









          Fred

          37.2k1237




          37.2k1237











          • And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
            – Math_QED
            Jul 26 at 7:46






          • 1




            If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
            – Fred
            Jul 26 at 7:50

















          • And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
            – Math_QED
            Jul 26 at 7:46






          • 1




            If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
            – Fred
            Jul 26 at 7:50
















          And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
          – Math_QED
          Jul 26 at 7:46




          And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
          – Math_QED
          Jul 26 at 7:46




          1




          1




          If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
          – Fred
          Jul 26 at 7:50





          If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
          – Fred
          Jul 26 at 7:50













           

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