Limit of a quotient.
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Let $X$ a metric space, $E subseteq X$ and $p$ be a limit point of $E$. Let $f,g: E subseteq X to mathbbC$ be functions. In Rudin and Apostol's books, I read the following:
Let $$fracfg: Z:=x in E: g(x) neq 0 to mathbbC: x mapsto fracf(x)g(x)$$
Let $A = lim_x to p f(x), B = lim_x to p g(x)$
Then $$lim_x to p left(fracfgright)(x) = fracAB$$
How are we sure that the limit makes sense? I.e., how do we know that
$p$ is a limit point of $Z$ as well?
real-analysis limits
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $X$ a metric space, $E subseteq X$ and $p$ be a limit point of $E$. Let $f,g: E subseteq X to mathbbC$ be functions. In Rudin and Apostol's books, I read the following:
Let $$fracfg: Z:=x in E: g(x) neq 0 to mathbbC: x mapsto fracf(x)g(x)$$
Let $A = lim_x to p f(x), B = lim_x to p g(x)$
Then $$lim_x to p left(fracfgright)(x) = fracAB$$
How are we sure that the limit makes sense? I.e., how do we know that
$p$ is a limit point of $Z$ as well?
real-analysis limits
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Let $X$ a metric space, $E subseteq X$ and $p$ be a limit point of $E$. Let $f,g: E subseteq X to mathbbC$ be functions. In Rudin and Apostol's books, I read the following:
Let $$fracfg: Z:=x in E: g(x) neq 0 to mathbbC: x mapsto fracf(x)g(x)$$
Let $A = lim_x to p f(x), B = lim_x to p g(x)$
Then $$lim_x to p left(fracfgright)(x) = fracAB$$
How are we sure that the limit makes sense? I.e., how do we know that
$p$ is a limit point of $Z$ as well?
real-analysis limits
Let $X$ a metric space, $E subseteq X$ and $p$ be a limit point of $E$. Let $f,g: E subseteq X to mathbbC$ be functions. In Rudin and Apostol's books, I read the following:
Let $$fracfg: Z:=x in E: g(x) neq 0 to mathbbC: x mapsto fracf(x)g(x)$$
Let $A = lim_x to p f(x), B = lim_x to p g(x)$
Then $$lim_x to p left(fracfgright)(x) = fracAB$$
How are we sure that the limit makes sense? I.e., how do we know that
$p$ is a limit point of $Z$ as well?
real-analysis limits
asked Jul 26 at 7:33


Math_QED
6,34831344
6,34831344
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We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.
If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.
And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
– Math_QED
Jul 26 at 7:46
1
If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
– Fred
Jul 26 at 7:50
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.
If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.
And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
– Math_QED
Jul 26 at 7:46
1
If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
– Fred
Jul 26 at 7:50
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.
If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.
And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
– Math_QED
Jul 26 at 7:46
1
If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
– Fred
Jul 26 at 7:50
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.
If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.
We have to require that $B = lim_x to p g(x) ne 0$.
If this is the case, then $p$ is a limit point of $Z$.
answered Jul 26 at 7:38


Fred
37.2k1237
37.2k1237
And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
– Math_QED
Jul 26 at 7:46
1
If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
– Fred
Jul 26 at 7:50
add a comment |Â
And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
– Math_QED
Jul 26 at 7:46
1
If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
– Fred
Jul 26 at 7:50
And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
– Math_QED
Jul 26 at 7:46
And why is a limit point of $Z$ then?
– Math_QED
Jul 26 at 7:46
1
1
If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
– Fred
Jul 26 at 7:50
If $B ne 0$, then there is a neighborhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(x) ne 0$ for all $x in E cap(U setminus p)$.
– Fred
Jul 26 at 7:50
add a comment |Â
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