Limiting behavior of sum of uniformly distributed random variables

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I was looking into the following problem and I can not think of a solution.




Consider i.i.d. random variables $X_1, X_2, ...$, such that $X_i$ has a uniform distribution over the interval $(0, 1)$. Find the following limit:
$$lim_n to infty Pleft(sum_i=1^n X_i leq 2 sum_i=1^nX_i^2right).$$




The only thing that occurred to me is evaluate each summand independently when
$$X_i leq 2 X^2_i$$ is equivalent to $X_i(1-X_i) leq X^2_i$, which implies $(1-X_i leq X_i)$ and the probability of this event is equal to $1/2$. Overall probability would be $(1/2)^n$ (since the summands are independent), its limit would be $0$. But that is not the limit I was supposed to look for.







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  • Yes, but it's not required that all the $X_igeq frac12$ in order for the inequality to hold.
    – saulspatz
    Aug 2 at 15:50














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












I was looking into the following problem and I can not think of a solution.




Consider i.i.d. random variables $X_1, X_2, ...$, such that $X_i$ has a uniform distribution over the interval $(0, 1)$. Find the following limit:
$$lim_n to infty Pleft(sum_i=1^n X_i leq 2 sum_i=1^nX_i^2right).$$




The only thing that occurred to me is evaluate each summand independently when
$$X_i leq 2 X^2_i$$ is equivalent to $X_i(1-X_i) leq X^2_i$, which implies $(1-X_i leq X_i)$ and the probability of this event is equal to $1/2$. Overall probability would be $(1/2)^n$ (since the summands are independent), its limit would be $0$. But that is not the limit I was supposed to look for.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Yes, but it's not required that all the $X_igeq frac12$ in order for the inequality to hold.
    – saulspatz
    Aug 2 at 15:50












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











I was looking into the following problem and I can not think of a solution.




Consider i.i.d. random variables $X_1, X_2, ...$, such that $X_i$ has a uniform distribution over the interval $(0, 1)$. Find the following limit:
$$lim_n to infty Pleft(sum_i=1^n X_i leq 2 sum_i=1^nX_i^2right).$$




The only thing that occurred to me is evaluate each summand independently when
$$X_i leq 2 X^2_i$$ is equivalent to $X_i(1-X_i) leq X^2_i$, which implies $(1-X_i leq X_i)$ and the probability of this event is equal to $1/2$. Overall probability would be $(1/2)^n$ (since the summands are independent), its limit would be $0$. But that is not the limit I was supposed to look for.







share|cite|improve this question













I was looking into the following problem and I can not think of a solution.




Consider i.i.d. random variables $X_1, X_2, ...$, such that $X_i$ has a uniform distribution over the interval $(0, 1)$. Find the following limit:
$$lim_n to infty Pleft(sum_i=1^n X_i leq 2 sum_i=1^nX_i^2right).$$




The only thing that occurred to me is evaluate each summand independently when
$$X_i leq 2 X^2_i$$ is equivalent to $X_i(1-X_i) leq X^2_i$, which implies $(1-X_i leq X_i)$ and the probability of this event is equal to $1/2$. Overall probability would be $(1/2)^n$ (since the summands are independent), its limit would be $0$. But that is not the limit I was supposed to look for.









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edited Aug 2 at 15:51









Math1000

18.4k31444




18.4k31444









asked Aug 2 at 15:46









Vwann

224




224











  • Yes, but it's not required that all the $X_igeq frac12$ in order for the inequality to hold.
    – saulspatz
    Aug 2 at 15:50
















  • Yes, but it's not required that all the $X_igeq frac12$ in order for the inequality to hold.
    – saulspatz
    Aug 2 at 15:50















Yes, but it's not required that all the $X_igeq frac12$ in order for the inequality to hold.
– saulspatz
Aug 2 at 15:50




Yes, but it's not required that all the $X_igeq frac12$ in order for the inequality to hold.
– saulspatz
Aug 2 at 15:50










1 Answer
1






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up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Hint: divide both sides by $n$. What does the strong law of large numbers say about each side as $n to infty$?






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • That the left side converges to the mean of a uniformly distributed r.v. which is $1/2$ and the right side converges to twice the mean of a squared unif. distributed r.v. which is $2/3$ in this case.
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:06










  • Wouldn't the weak law of large numbers be more applicable here?
    – Math1000
    Aug 2 at 16:11










  • So can I state that since $$P(lim_n to infty hatX^_n - 2hatX^2_n = -1/6) =1$$ (convergence almost surely) then the original limit is 1 also?
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:13











  • Yes, the original limit is $1$ also; you could use the weak law of large numbers too, but that would require a tiny bit more work. It's basically the same thing.
    – Marcus M
    Aug 2 at 16:24










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Hint: divide both sides by $n$. What does the strong law of large numbers say about each side as $n to infty$?






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • That the left side converges to the mean of a uniformly distributed r.v. which is $1/2$ and the right side converges to twice the mean of a squared unif. distributed r.v. which is $2/3$ in this case.
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:06










  • Wouldn't the weak law of large numbers be more applicable here?
    – Math1000
    Aug 2 at 16:11










  • So can I state that since $$P(lim_n to infty hatX^_n - 2hatX^2_n = -1/6) =1$$ (convergence almost surely) then the original limit is 1 also?
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:13











  • Yes, the original limit is $1$ also; you could use the weak law of large numbers too, but that would require a tiny bit more work. It's basically the same thing.
    – Marcus M
    Aug 2 at 16:24














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










Hint: divide both sides by $n$. What does the strong law of large numbers say about each side as $n to infty$?






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • That the left side converges to the mean of a uniformly distributed r.v. which is $1/2$ and the right side converges to twice the mean of a squared unif. distributed r.v. which is $2/3$ in this case.
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:06










  • Wouldn't the weak law of large numbers be more applicable here?
    – Math1000
    Aug 2 at 16:11










  • So can I state that since $$P(lim_n to infty hatX^_n - 2hatX^2_n = -1/6) =1$$ (convergence almost surely) then the original limit is 1 also?
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:13











  • Yes, the original limit is $1$ also; you could use the weak law of large numbers too, but that would require a tiny bit more work. It's basically the same thing.
    – Marcus M
    Aug 2 at 16:24












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






Hint: divide both sides by $n$. What does the strong law of large numbers say about each side as $n to infty$?






share|cite|improve this answer













Hint: divide both sides by $n$. What does the strong law of large numbers say about each side as $n to infty$?







share|cite|improve this answer













share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer











answered Aug 2 at 15:58









Marcus M

8,1631847




8,1631847











  • That the left side converges to the mean of a uniformly distributed r.v. which is $1/2$ and the right side converges to twice the mean of a squared unif. distributed r.v. which is $2/3$ in this case.
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:06










  • Wouldn't the weak law of large numbers be more applicable here?
    – Math1000
    Aug 2 at 16:11










  • So can I state that since $$P(lim_n to infty hatX^_n - 2hatX^2_n = -1/6) =1$$ (convergence almost surely) then the original limit is 1 also?
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:13











  • Yes, the original limit is $1$ also; you could use the weak law of large numbers too, but that would require a tiny bit more work. It's basically the same thing.
    – Marcus M
    Aug 2 at 16:24
















  • That the left side converges to the mean of a uniformly distributed r.v. which is $1/2$ and the right side converges to twice the mean of a squared unif. distributed r.v. which is $2/3$ in this case.
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:06










  • Wouldn't the weak law of large numbers be more applicable here?
    – Math1000
    Aug 2 at 16:11










  • So can I state that since $$P(lim_n to infty hatX^_n - 2hatX^2_n = -1/6) =1$$ (convergence almost surely) then the original limit is 1 also?
    – Vwann
    Aug 2 at 16:13











  • Yes, the original limit is $1$ also; you could use the weak law of large numbers too, but that would require a tiny bit more work. It's basically the same thing.
    – Marcus M
    Aug 2 at 16:24















That the left side converges to the mean of a uniformly distributed r.v. which is $1/2$ and the right side converges to twice the mean of a squared unif. distributed r.v. which is $2/3$ in this case.
– Vwann
Aug 2 at 16:06




That the left side converges to the mean of a uniformly distributed r.v. which is $1/2$ and the right side converges to twice the mean of a squared unif. distributed r.v. which is $2/3$ in this case.
– Vwann
Aug 2 at 16:06












Wouldn't the weak law of large numbers be more applicable here?
– Math1000
Aug 2 at 16:11




Wouldn't the weak law of large numbers be more applicable here?
– Math1000
Aug 2 at 16:11












So can I state that since $$P(lim_n to infty hatX^_n - 2hatX^2_n = -1/6) =1$$ (convergence almost surely) then the original limit is 1 also?
– Vwann
Aug 2 at 16:13





So can I state that since $$P(lim_n to infty hatX^_n - 2hatX^2_n = -1/6) =1$$ (convergence almost surely) then the original limit is 1 also?
– Vwann
Aug 2 at 16:13













Yes, the original limit is $1$ also; you could use the weak law of large numbers too, but that would require a tiny bit more work. It's basically the same thing.
– Marcus M
Aug 2 at 16:24




Yes, the original limit is $1$ also; you could use the weak law of large numbers too, but that would require a tiny bit more work. It's basically the same thing.
– Marcus M
Aug 2 at 16:24












 

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