Proof that every prime has a primitive root.
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So I encountered this proof on a Number Theory book, I will link the pdf at the end of the post (proof at page 96), it says: "Every prime has a primitive root,
proof: Let p be a prime and let m be a positive integer such that:
p−1=mk for some integer k. Let F(m) be the number of positive integers of order m modulo p that are less than p. The order modulo p of an integer not divisible by p divides p − 1 , it follows that:
$$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)
$$
By theorem 42 we know that:
$$p-1=sum_p-1phi(m)
$$
By Lemma 11,F(m)≤Æ(m) when m|(p−1). Together with:
$$sum_p-1F(m)=sum_p-1phi(m)
$$
we see that F(m)=Æ(m) for each positive divisor m of p−1. Thus we conclude that F(m)=Æ(m). As a result, we see that there are p−1 incongruent integers of order p−1 modulo p. Thus p has Æ(p−1) primitive roots.
The part that i don't understand is near the beginning, when he says "The order modulo p of an integer not divisible by p divides p − 1 , it follows that: $$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)
$$" How does he conclude that? I understand that the order of the integer must divide p-1 but how does that imply that the summation actually evaluates at p-1?...
Link of the book's pdf: https://www.saylor.org/site/wp-content/uploads/2013/05/An-Introductory-in-Elementary-Number-Theory.pdf
number-theory elementary-number-theory modular-arithmetic
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So I encountered this proof on a Number Theory book, I will link the pdf at the end of the post (proof at page 96), it says: "Every prime has a primitive root,
proof: Let p be a prime and let m be a positive integer such that:
p−1=mk for some integer k. Let F(m) be the number of positive integers of order m modulo p that are less than p. The order modulo p of an integer not divisible by p divides p − 1 , it follows that:
$$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)
$$
By theorem 42 we know that:
$$p-1=sum_p-1phi(m)
$$
By Lemma 11,F(m)≤Æ(m) when m|(p−1). Together with:
$$sum_p-1F(m)=sum_p-1phi(m)
$$
we see that F(m)=Æ(m) for each positive divisor m of p−1. Thus we conclude that F(m)=Æ(m). As a result, we see that there are p−1 incongruent integers of order p−1 modulo p. Thus p has Æ(p−1) primitive roots.
The part that i don't understand is near the beginning, when he says "The order modulo p of an integer not divisible by p divides p − 1 , it follows that: $$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)
$$" How does he conclude that? I understand that the order of the integer must divide p-1 but how does that imply that the summation actually evaluates at p-1?...
Link of the book's pdf: https://www.saylor.org/site/wp-content/uploads/2013/05/An-Introductory-in-Elementary-Number-Theory.pdf
number-theory elementary-number-theory modular-arithmetic
Try this for some small prime like $5$ or $7$ and you'll see.
– saulspatz
Jul 23 at 13:57
The nonzero elements of the $p$-element field form a group under multiplication of order $p-1$; thus the multiplicative order must be a divisor of $p-1$.
– egreg
Jul 23 at 14:10
Recall how you defined $F(m)$, "Let $F(m)$ be the number of positive integers of order $mbmod p$ that are less than $p$." What's the order of the group?
– sharding4
Jul 23 at 14:29
Nice proof actually. Another proof is a corollary of the (much longer) result that if $(F, +,0,times, 1)$ is a finite field then the group $(Fbackslash 0, times, 1)$ is cyclic.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 23 at 15:03
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up vote
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So I encountered this proof on a Number Theory book, I will link the pdf at the end of the post (proof at page 96), it says: "Every prime has a primitive root,
proof: Let p be a prime and let m be a positive integer such that:
p−1=mk for some integer k. Let F(m) be the number of positive integers of order m modulo p that are less than p. The order modulo p of an integer not divisible by p divides p − 1 , it follows that:
$$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)
$$
By theorem 42 we know that:
$$p-1=sum_p-1phi(m)
$$
By Lemma 11,F(m)≤Æ(m) when m|(p−1). Together with:
$$sum_p-1F(m)=sum_p-1phi(m)
$$
we see that F(m)=Æ(m) for each positive divisor m of p−1. Thus we conclude that F(m)=Æ(m). As a result, we see that there are p−1 incongruent integers of order p−1 modulo p. Thus p has Æ(p−1) primitive roots.
The part that i don't understand is near the beginning, when he says "The order modulo p of an integer not divisible by p divides p − 1 , it follows that: $$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)
$$" How does he conclude that? I understand that the order of the integer must divide p-1 but how does that imply that the summation actually evaluates at p-1?...
Link of the book's pdf: https://www.saylor.org/site/wp-content/uploads/2013/05/An-Introductory-in-Elementary-Number-Theory.pdf
number-theory elementary-number-theory modular-arithmetic
So I encountered this proof on a Number Theory book, I will link the pdf at the end of the post (proof at page 96), it says: "Every prime has a primitive root,
proof: Let p be a prime and let m be a positive integer such that:
p−1=mk for some integer k. Let F(m) be the number of positive integers of order m modulo p that are less than p. The order modulo p of an integer not divisible by p divides p − 1 , it follows that:
$$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)
$$
By theorem 42 we know that:
$$p-1=sum_p-1phi(m)
$$
By Lemma 11,F(m)≤Æ(m) when m|(p−1). Together with:
$$sum_p-1F(m)=sum_p-1phi(m)
$$
we see that F(m)=Æ(m) for each positive divisor m of p−1. Thus we conclude that F(m)=Æ(m). As a result, we see that there are p−1 incongruent integers of order p−1 modulo p. Thus p has Æ(p−1) primitive roots.
The part that i don't understand is near the beginning, when he says "The order modulo p of an integer not divisible by p divides p − 1 , it follows that: $$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)
$$" How does he conclude that? I understand that the order of the integer must divide p-1 but how does that imply that the summation actually evaluates at p-1?...
Link of the book's pdf: https://www.saylor.org/site/wp-content/uploads/2013/05/An-Introductory-in-Elementary-Number-Theory.pdf
number-theory elementary-number-theory modular-arithmetic
asked Jul 23 at 13:51


Spasoje Durovic
113
113
Try this for some small prime like $5$ or $7$ and you'll see.
– saulspatz
Jul 23 at 13:57
The nonzero elements of the $p$-element field form a group under multiplication of order $p-1$; thus the multiplicative order must be a divisor of $p-1$.
– egreg
Jul 23 at 14:10
Recall how you defined $F(m)$, "Let $F(m)$ be the number of positive integers of order $mbmod p$ that are less than $p$." What's the order of the group?
– sharding4
Jul 23 at 14:29
Nice proof actually. Another proof is a corollary of the (much longer) result that if $(F, +,0,times, 1)$ is a finite field then the group $(Fbackslash 0, times, 1)$ is cyclic.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 23 at 15:03
add a comment |Â
Try this for some small prime like $5$ or $7$ and you'll see.
– saulspatz
Jul 23 at 13:57
The nonzero elements of the $p$-element field form a group under multiplication of order $p-1$; thus the multiplicative order must be a divisor of $p-1$.
– egreg
Jul 23 at 14:10
Recall how you defined $F(m)$, "Let $F(m)$ be the number of positive integers of order $mbmod p$ that are less than $p$." What's the order of the group?
– sharding4
Jul 23 at 14:29
Nice proof actually. Another proof is a corollary of the (much longer) result that if $(F, +,0,times, 1)$ is a finite field then the group $(Fbackslash 0, times, 1)$ is cyclic.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 23 at 15:03
Try this for some small prime like $5$ or $7$ and you'll see.
– saulspatz
Jul 23 at 13:57
Try this for some small prime like $5$ or $7$ and you'll see.
– saulspatz
Jul 23 at 13:57
The nonzero elements of the $p$-element field form a group under multiplication of order $p-1$; thus the multiplicative order must be a divisor of $p-1$.
– egreg
Jul 23 at 14:10
The nonzero elements of the $p$-element field form a group under multiplication of order $p-1$; thus the multiplicative order must be a divisor of $p-1$.
– egreg
Jul 23 at 14:10
Recall how you defined $F(m)$, "Let $F(m)$ be the number of positive integers of order $mbmod p$ that are less than $p$." What's the order of the group?
– sharding4
Jul 23 at 14:29
Recall how you defined $F(m)$, "Let $F(m)$ be the number of positive integers of order $mbmod p$ that are less than $p$." What's the order of the group?
– sharding4
Jul 23 at 14:29
Nice proof actually. Another proof is a corollary of the (much longer) result that if $(F, +,0,times, 1)$ is a finite field then the group $(Fbackslash 0, times, 1)$ is cyclic.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 23 at 15:03
Nice proof actually. Another proof is a corollary of the (much longer) result that if $(F, +,0,times, 1)$ is a finite field then the group $(Fbackslash 0, times, 1)$ is cyclic.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 23 at 15:03
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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There are $p-1$ positive integers less than $p$, namely $1, 2, ..., p-1$.
Each of these will have some multiplicative order modulo $p$. So if we count all those of order $1$, all those of order $2$, all those of order $3$, etc then the total count is $p-1$. There are $F(1)$ of order $1$, $F(2)$ of order $2$, etc, so:
$$p-1=sum_m=1^inftyF(m)$$
However, we know their orders will divide $p-1$, so almost all the terms in this sum will be zero. Only those with $m|(p-1)$ will contribute to the sum. We therefore have:
$$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)$$
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1 Answer
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
There are $p-1$ positive integers less than $p$, namely $1, 2, ..., p-1$.
Each of these will have some multiplicative order modulo $p$. So if we count all those of order $1$, all those of order $2$, all those of order $3$, etc then the total count is $p-1$. There are $F(1)$ of order $1$, $F(2)$ of order $2$, etc, so:
$$p-1=sum_m=1^inftyF(m)$$
However, we know their orders will divide $p-1$, so almost all the terms in this sum will be zero. Only those with $m|(p-1)$ will contribute to the sum. We therefore have:
$$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
There are $p-1$ positive integers less than $p$, namely $1, 2, ..., p-1$.
Each of these will have some multiplicative order modulo $p$. So if we count all those of order $1$, all those of order $2$, all those of order $3$, etc then the total count is $p-1$. There are $F(1)$ of order $1$, $F(2)$ of order $2$, etc, so:
$$p-1=sum_m=1^inftyF(m)$$
However, we know their orders will divide $p-1$, so almost all the terms in this sum will be zero. Only those with $m|(p-1)$ will contribute to the sum. We therefore have:
$$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)$$
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
up vote
2
down vote
There are $p-1$ positive integers less than $p$, namely $1, 2, ..., p-1$.
Each of these will have some multiplicative order modulo $p$. So if we count all those of order $1$, all those of order $2$, all those of order $3$, etc then the total count is $p-1$. There are $F(1)$ of order $1$, $F(2)$ of order $2$, etc, so:
$$p-1=sum_m=1^inftyF(m)$$
However, we know their orders will divide $p-1$, so almost all the terms in this sum will be zero. Only those with $m|(p-1)$ will contribute to the sum. We therefore have:
$$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)$$
There are $p-1$ positive integers less than $p$, namely $1, 2, ..., p-1$.
Each of these will have some multiplicative order modulo $p$. So if we count all those of order $1$, all those of order $2$, all those of order $3$, etc then the total count is $p-1$. There are $F(1)$ of order $1$, $F(2)$ of order $2$, etc, so:
$$p-1=sum_m=1^inftyF(m)$$
However, we know their orders will divide $p-1$, so almost all the terms in this sum will be zero. Only those with $m|(p-1)$ will contribute to the sum. We therefore have:
$$p-1=sum_p-1F(m)$$
answered Jul 23 at 14:48


Jaap Scherphuis
3,153214
3,153214
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Try this for some small prime like $5$ or $7$ and you'll see.
– saulspatz
Jul 23 at 13:57
The nonzero elements of the $p$-element field form a group under multiplication of order $p-1$; thus the multiplicative order must be a divisor of $p-1$.
– egreg
Jul 23 at 14:10
Recall how you defined $F(m)$, "Let $F(m)$ be the number of positive integers of order $mbmod p$ that are less than $p$." What's the order of the group?
– sharding4
Jul 23 at 14:29
Nice proof actually. Another proof is a corollary of the (much longer) result that if $(F, +,0,times, 1)$ is a finite field then the group $(Fbackslash 0, times, 1)$ is cyclic.
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 23 at 15:03