Proof that there exist an open set with compact closure explanation

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I'm reading Rudins "Complex Analysis". There's a theorem that goes like this.



Theorem: Let $U$ be open, in a locally compact Hausdorff space. Let $Ksubset U$ and $K$ be compact. Then there exist an open set $V$ such that
$$Ksubset Vsubset overlineVsubset U $$
Proof:



Because every point of $K$ has a neighbourhood that's closure is compact, and we can cover $K$ with finite amount of such neighbourhoods, then there exist a set $G$, that has a compact closure, and is a subset of $K$. If $U=X$ then we can take $V=G$.



If not, define $C$ as the complement of $U$. From theorem $2.5$, for every point $pin C$, there exist an open set $W_p$, such that $Ksubset W_p$, and $pnotinoverlineW_p$.



And the proof goes on.



Theorem $2.5$: Suppose that $X$ is a Hausdorff space, $Ksubset X$ is a compact set, and $pin K^c$. Then there exist open sets $U$ and $W$, such that $pin U$, $Ksubset W$, and $U cap W = emptyset$.



My question is, how we can use this theorem in the proof, so that we can state the existence of such sets $W_p$. Mainly, where does $pnotinoverlineW_p$ come from. Thank you.



Another question that might help me. If $U$ and $V$ are open, $Ucap V=emptyset$ holds, does $overlineUcap V=emptyset$?



I've found a similar question here. In the comments, Andreas says that if $p$ was in closure of $W_p$, then every neighbourhood of $p$ would have to meet $W_p$. Why is that?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Re: "Another question" : If $V$ is open then its complement is $V^c$ is closed and disjoint from $V $. So if $ V $ is open and is disjoint from $U$ then $Vcap overline Usubset V cap overline V^c=$ $V cap V^c=emptyset.$... Another way to see this is that if $V$ is open and $Ucap V= emptyset,$ then every $pin V $ has a nbhd (namely, $V $ ) that's disjoint from $U,$ so $pnot in overline U.$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:10











  • The theorem, with $overline V$ compact, directly: (1). In a Hausdorff space if $C$ is compact and $pnotin C$ than $p, C$ are completely separated. (2). If $D$ is open and $ overline D$ is compact then $partial D= overline D$ $ D$ is compact. (3). We use (1) and (2) to prove that a compact $T_2$ space is regular..... Then for each $p in K$ let $V_p, U_p$ be open sets containing $p$ such that $overline V_p$ is compact and $overline U_psubset U. $ Now $A=V_pcap U_p: pin K$ is an open cover of $K.$ Let $B$ be a finite sub-cover of $A$ and let $V=cup B.$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:28











  • ERRATUM: In my previous comment , (3) should say that a LOCALLY compact $T_2$ space is regular. I ran out of editing time .
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:35






  • 1




    @DanielWainfleet Thank you! I get it now.
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 20:03














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I'm reading Rudins "Complex Analysis". There's a theorem that goes like this.



Theorem: Let $U$ be open, in a locally compact Hausdorff space. Let $Ksubset U$ and $K$ be compact. Then there exist an open set $V$ such that
$$Ksubset Vsubset overlineVsubset U $$
Proof:



Because every point of $K$ has a neighbourhood that's closure is compact, and we can cover $K$ with finite amount of such neighbourhoods, then there exist a set $G$, that has a compact closure, and is a subset of $K$. If $U=X$ then we can take $V=G$.



If not, define $C$ as the complement of $U$. From theorem $2.5$, for every point $pin C$, there exist an open set $W_p$, such that $Ksubset W_p$, and $pnotinoverlineW_p$.



And the proof goes on.



Theorem $2.5$: Suppose that $X$ is a Hausdorff space, $Ksubset X$ is a compact set, and $pin K^c$. Then there exist open sets $U$ and $W$, such that $pin U$, $Ksubset W$, and $U cap W = emptyset$.



My question is, how we can use this theorem in the proof, so that we can state the existence of such sets $W_p$. Mainly, where does $pnotinoverlineW_p$ come from. Thank you.



Another question that might help me. If $U$ and $V$ are open, $Ucap V=emptyset$ holds, does $overlineUcap V=emptyset$?



I've found a similar question here. In the comments, Andreas says that if $p$ was in closure of $W_p$, then every neighbourhood of $p$ would have to meet $W_p$. Why is that?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Re: "Another question" : If $V$ is open then its complement is $V^c$ is closed and disjoint from $V $. So if $ V $ is open and is disjoint from $U$ then $Vcap overline Usubset V cap overline V^c=$ $V cap V^c=emptyset.$... Another way to see this is that if $V$ is open and $Ucap V= emptyset,$ then every $pin V $ has a nbhd (namely, $V $ ) that's disjoint from $U,$ so $pnot in overline U.$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:10











  • The theorem, with $overline V$ compact, directly: (1). In a Hausdorff space if $C$ is compact and $pnotin C$ than $p, C$ are completely separated. (2). If $D$ is open and $ overline D$ is compact then $partial D= overline D$ $ D$ is compact. (3). We use (1) and (2) to prove that a compact $T_2$ space is regular..... Then for each $p in K$ let $V_p, U_p$ be open sets containing $p$ such that $overline V_p$ is compact and $overline U_psubset U. $ Now $A=V_pcap U_p: pin K$ is an open cover of $K.$ Let $B$ be a finite sub-cover of $A$ and let $V=cup B.$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:28











  • ERRATUM: In my previous comment , (3) should say that a LOCALLY compact $T_2$ space is regular. I ran out of editing time .
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:35






  • 1




    @DanielWainfleet Thank you! I get it now.
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 20:03












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I'm reading Rudins "Complex Analysis". There's a theorem that goes like this.



Theorem: Let $U$ be open, in a locally compact Hausdorff space. Let $Ksubset U$ and $K$ be compact. Then there exist an open set $V$ such that
$$Ksubset Vsubset overlineVsubset U $$
Proof:



Because every point of $K$ has a neighbourhood that's closure is compact, and we can cover $K$ with finite amount of such neighbourhoods, then there exist a set $G$, that has a compact closure, and is a subset of $K$. If $U=X$ then we can take $V=G$.



If not, define $C$ as the complement of $U$. From theorem $2.5$, for every point $pin C$, there exist an open set $W_p$, such that $Ksubset W_p$, and $pnotinoverlineW_p$.



And the proof goes on.



Theorem $2.5$: Suppose that $X$ is a Hausdorff space, $Ksubset X$ is a compact set, and $pin K^c$. Then there exist open sets $U$ and $W$, such that $pin U$, $Ksubset W$, and $U cap W = emptyset$.



My question is, how we can use this theorem in the proof, so that we can state the existence of such sets $W_p$. Mainly, where does $pnotinoverlineW_p$ come from. Thank you.



Another question that might help me. If $U$ and $V$ are open, $Ucap V=emptyset$ holds, does $overlineUcap V=emptyset$?



I've found a similar question here. In the comments, Andreas says that if $p$ was in closure of $W_p$, then every neighbourhood of $p$ would have to meet $W_p$. Why is that?







share|cite|improve this question













I'm reading Rudins "Complex Analysis". There's a theorem that goes like this.



Theorem: Let $U$ be open, in a locally compact Hausdorff space. Let $Ksubset U$ and $K$ be compact. Then there exist an open set $V$ such that
$$Ksubset Vsubset overlineVsubset U $$
Proof:



Because every point of $K$ has a neighbourhood that's closure is compact, and we can cover $K$ with finite amount of such neighbourhoods, then there exist a set $G$, that has a compact closure, and is a subset of $K$. If $U=X$ then we can take $V=G$.



If not, define $C$ as the complement of $U$. From theorem $2.5$, for every point $pin C$, there exist an open set $W_p$, such that $Ksubset W_p$, and $pnotinoverlineW_p$.



And the proof goes on.



Theorem $2.5$: Suppose that $X$ is a Hausdorff space, $Ksubset X$ is a compact set, and $pin K^c$. Then there exist open sets $U$ and $W$, such that $pin U$, $Ksubset W$, and $U cap W = emptyset$.



My question is, how we can use this theorem in the proof, so that we can state the existence of such sets $W_p$. Mainly, where does $pnotinoverlineW_p$ come from. Thank you.



Another question that might help me. If $U$ and $V$ are open, $Ucap V=emptyset$ holds, does $overlineUcap V=emptyset$?



I've found a similar question here. In the comments, Andreas says that if $p$ was in closure of $W_p$, then every neighbourhood of $p$ would have to meet $W_p$. Why is that?









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 22 at 18:12
























asked Jul 22 at 16:36









Habrum

185




185











  • Re: "Another question" : If $V$ is open then its complement is $V^c$ is closed and disjoint from $V $. So if $ V $ is open and is disjoint from $U$ then $Vcap overline Usubset V cap overline V^c=$ $V cap V^c=emptyset.$... Another way to see this is that if $V$ is open and $Ucap V= emptyset,$ then every $pin V $ has a nbhd (namely, $V $ ) that's disjoint from $U,$ so $pnot in overline U.$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:10











  • The theorem, with $overline V$ compact, directly: (1). In a Hausdorff space if $C$ is compact and $pnotin C$ than $p, C$ are completely separated. (2). If $D$ is open and $ overline D$ is compact then $partial D= overline D$ $ D$ is compact. (3). We use (1) and (2) to prove that a compact $T_2$ space is regular..... Then for each $p in K$ let $V_p, U_p$ be open sets containing $p$ such that $overline V_p$ is compact and $overline U_psubset U. $ Now $A=V_pcap U_p: pin K$ is an open cover of $K.$ Let $B$ be a finite sub-cover of $A$ and let $V=cup B.$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:28











  • ERRATUM: In my previous comment , (3) should say that a LOCALLY compact $T_2$ space is regular. I ran out of editing time .
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:35






  • 1




    @DanielWainfleet Thank you! I get it now.
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 20:03
















  • Re: "Another question" : If $V$ is open then its complement is $V^c$ is closed and disjoint from $V $. So if $ V $ is open and is disjoint from $U$ then $Vcap overline Usubset V cap overline V^c=$ $V cap V^c=emptyset.$... Another way to see this is that if $V$ is open and $Ucap V= emptyset,$ then every $pin V $ has a nbhd (namely, $V $ ) that's disjoint from $U,$ so $pnot in overline U.$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:10











  • The theorem, with $overline V$ compact, directly: (1). In a Hausdorff space if $C$ is compact and $pnotin C$ than $p, C$ are completely separated. (2). If $D$ is open and $ overline D$ is compact then $partial D= overline D$ $ D$ is compact. (3). We use (1) and (2) to prove that a compact $T_2$ space is regular..... Then for each $p in K$ let $V_p, U_p$ be open sets containing $p$ such that $overline V_p$ is compact and $overline U_psubset U. $ Now $A=V_pcap U_p: pin K$ is an open cover of $K.$ Let $B$ be a finite sub-cover of $A$ and let $V=cup B.$
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:28











  • ERRATUM: In my previous comment , (3) should say that a LOCALLY compact $T_2$ space is regular. I ran out of editing time .
    – DanielWainfleet
    Jul 22 at 19:35






  • 1




    @DanielWainfleet Thank you! I get it now.
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 20:03















Re: "Another question" : If $V$ is open then its complement is $V^c$ is closed and disjoint from $V $. So if $ V $ is open and is disjoint from $U$ then $Vcap overline Usubset V cap overline V^c=$ $V cap V^c=emptyset.$... Another way to see this is that if $V$ is open and $Ucap V= emptyset,$ then every $pin V $ has a nbhd (namely, $V $ ) that's disjoint from $U,$ so $pnot in overline U.$
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 22 at 19:10





Re: "Another question" : If $V$ is open then its complement is $V^c$ is closed and disjoint from $V $. So if $ V $ is open and is disjoint from $U$ then $Vcap overline Usubset V cap overline V^c=$ $V cap V^c=emptyset.$... Another way to see this is that if $V$ is open and $Ucap V= emptyset,$ then every $pin V $ has a nbhd (namely, $V $ ) that's disjoint from $U,$ so $pnot in overline U.$
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 22 at 19:10













The theorem, with $overline V$ compact, directly: (1). In a Hausdorff space if $C$ is compact and $pnotin C$ than $p, C$ are completely separated. (2). If $D$ is open and $ overline D$ is compact then $partial D= overline D$ $ D$ is compact. (3). We use (1) and (2) to prove that a compact $T_2$ space is regular..... Then for each $p in K$ let $V_p, U_p$ be open sets containing $p$ such that $overline V_p$ is compact and $overline U_psubset U. $ Now $A=V_pcap U_p: pin K$ is an open cover of $K.$ Let $B$ be a finite sub-cover of $A$ and let $V=cup B.$
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 22 at 19:28





The theorem, with $overline V$ compact, directly: (1). In a Hausdorff space if $C$ is compact and $pnotin C$ than $p, C$ are completely separated. (2). If $D$ is open and $ overline D$ is compact then $partial D= overline D$ $ D$ is compact. (3). We use (1) and (2) to prove that a compact $T_2$ space is regular..... Then for each $p in K$ let $V_p, U_p$ be open sets containing $p$ such that $overline V_p$ is compact and $overline U_psubset U. $ Now $A=V_pcap U_p: pin K$ is an open cover of $K.$ Let $B$ be a finite sub-cover of $A$ and let $V=cup B.$
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 22 at 19:28













ERRATUM: In my previous comment , (3) should say that a LOCALLY compact $T_2$ space is regular. I ran out of editing time .
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 22 at 19:35




ERRATUM: In my previous comment , (3) should say that a LOCALLY compact $T_2$ space is regular. I ran out of editing time .
– DanielWainfleet
Jul 22 at 19:35




1




1




@DanielWainfleet Thank you! I get it now.
– Habrum
Jul 22 at 20:03




@DanielWainfleet Thank you! I get it now.
– Habrum
Jul 22 at 20:03










1 Answer
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Use the Hausdorff condition. For each $ain K$ there are disjoint
open neighbourhoods $U_a$ and $V_a$ of $p$ and $a$ respectively.
Finitely many of the $V_a$ will cover $K$; let $W$ be their union,
and $U$ the intersection of the corresponding $U_a$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Yes, that's how the proof of Theorem $2.5$ is stated. My question is how to use this theorem
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 16:50










  • The point is that $U$ and $W$ are disjoint.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:02










  • $U$ and $W$ are disjoint, does that imply that, for example, $overlineU$ and $W$ are disjoint?
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 17:03











  • $W$ is open
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:04










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

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up vote
0
down vote













Use the Hausdorff condition. For each $ain K$ there are disjoint
open neighbourhoods $U_a$ and $V_a$ of $p$ and $a$ respectively.
Finitely many of the $V_a$ will cover $K$; let $W$ be their union,
and $U$ the intersection of the corresponding $U_a$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Yes, that's how the proof of Theorem $2.5$ is stated. My question is how to use this theorem
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 16:50










  • The point is that $U$ and $W$ are disjoint.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:02










  • $U$ and $W$ are disjoint, does that imply that, for example, $overlineU$ and $W$ are disjoint?
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 17:03











  • $W$ is open
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:04














up vote
0
down vote













Use the Hausdorff condition. For each $ain K$ there are disjoint
open neighbourhoods $U_a$ and $V_a$ of $p$ and $a$ respectively.
Finitely many of the $V_a$ will cover $K$; let $W$ be their union,
and $U$ the intersection of the corresponding $U_a$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Yes, that's how the proof of Theorem $2.5$ is stated. My question is how to use this theorem
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 16:50










  • The point is that $U$ and $W$ are disjoint.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:02










  • $U$ and $W$ are disjoint, does that imply that, for example, $overlineU$ and $W$ are disjoint?
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 17:03











  • $W$ is open
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:04












up vote
0
down vote










up vote
0
down vote









Use the Hausdorff condition. For each $ain K$ there are disjoint
open neighbourhoods $U_a$ and $V_a$ of $p$ and $a$ respectively.
Finitely many of the $V_a$ will cover $K$; let $W$ be their union,
and $U$ the intersection of the corresponding $U_a$.






share|cite|improve this answer













Use the Hausdorff condition. For each $ain K$ there are disjoint
open neighbourhoods $U_a$ and $V_a$ of $p$ and $a$ respectively.
Finitely many of the $V_a$ will cover $K$; let $W$ be their union,
and $U$ the intersection of the corresponding $U_a$.







share|cite|improve this answer













share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer











answered Jul 22 at 16:46









Lord Shark the Unknown

85.2k950111




85.2k950111











  • Yes, that's how the proof of Theorem $2.5$ is stated. My question is how to use this theorem
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 16:50










  • The point is that $U$ and $W$ are disjoint.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:02










  • $U$ and $W$ are disjoint, does that imply that, for example, $overlineU$ and $W$ are disjoint?
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 17:03











  • $W$ is open
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:04
















  • Yes, that's how the proof of Theorem $2.5$ is stated. My question is how to use this theorem
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 16:50










  • The point is that $U$ and $W$ are disjoint.
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:02










  • $U$ and $W$ are disjoint, does that imply that, for example, $overlineU$ and $W$ are disjoint?
    – Habrum
    Jul 22 at 17:03











  • $W$ is open
    – Lord Shark the Unknown
    Jul 22 at 17:04















Yes, that's how the proof of Theorem $2.5$ is stated. My question is how to use this theorem
– Habrum
Jul 22 at 16:50




Yes, that's how the proof of Theorem $2.5$ is stated. My question is how to use this theorem
– Habrum
Jul 22 at 16:50












The point is that $U$ and $W$ are disjoint.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 17:02




The point is that $U$ and $W$ are disjoint.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 17:02












$U$ and $W$ are disjoint, does that imply that, for example, $overlineU$ and $W$ are disjoint?
– Habrum
Jul 22 at 17:03





$U$ and $W$ are disjoint, does that imply that, for example, $overlineU$ and $W$ are disjoint?
– Habrum
Jul 22 at 17:03













$W$ is open
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 17:04




$W$ is open
– Lord Shark the Unknown
Jul 22 at 17:04












 

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