Unramified implies local-etale

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I'm trying to understand the proof of the following lemma in Freitag/Kiehl, "Etale Cohomology...":




1.5 Lemma. Let $A rightarrow B$ be a finitely generated local homomorphism. We assume that it is injective and that $A$ is a normal ring. If $B$ is unramified over $A$, then $B$ is a local-etale $A$-algebra.




It had previously been shown that $B=tildeB/mathfrak a$, where $tilde B$ is local-etale over $A$. Taking this for granted, the proof continues:




As $A$ is normal, so is $tilde B$ ... ,and thus without zero divisors. From the injectivity of $A rightarrow B$ we conclude $mathfrak a = 0$.




I don't understand how we conclude that $mathfrak a =0$ based on the preceding information. (I accept that $tildeB$ is normal.) Would someone be kind enough to help me understand?



Note: $f: A rightarrow B$ local-etale means:



  • $f$ is a localization of a finitely generated morphism

  • $f$ is flat and unramified






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    I'm trying to understand the proof of the following lemma in Freitag/Kiehl, "Etale Cohomology...":




    1.5 Lemma. Let $A rightarrow B$ be a finitely generated local homomorphism. We assume that it is injective and that $A$ is a normal ring. If $B$ is unramified over $A$, then $B$ is a local-etale $A$-algebra.




    It had previously been shown that $B=tildeB/mathfrak a$, where $tilde B$ is local-etale over $A$. Taking this for granted, the proof continues:




    As $A$ is normal, so is $tilde B$ ... ,and thus without zero divisors. From the injectivity of $A rightarrow B$ we conclude $mathfrak a = 0$.




    I don't understand how we conclude that $mathfrak a =0$ based on the preceding information. (I accept that $tildeB$ is normal.) Would someone be kind enough to help me understand?



    Note: $f: A rightarrow B$ local-etale means:



    • $f$ is a localization of a finitely generated morphism

    • $f$ is flat and unramified






    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      I'm trying to understand the proof of the following lemma in Freitag/Kiehl, "Etale Cohomology...":




      1.5 Lemma. Let $A rightarrow B$ be a finitely generated local homomorphism. We assume that it is injective and that $A$ is a normal ring. If $B$ is unramified over $A$, then $B$ is a local-etale $A$-algebra.




      It had previously been shown that $B=tildeB/mathfrak a$, where $tilde B$ is local-etale over $A$. Taking this for granted, the proof continues:




      As $A$ is normal, so is $tilde B$ ... ,and thus without zero divisors. From the injectivity of $A rightarrow B$ we conclude $mathfrak a = 0$.




      I don't understand how we conclude that $mathfrak a =0$ based on the preceding information. (I accept that $tildeB$ is normal.) Would someone be kind enough to help me understand?



      Note: $f: A rightarrow B$ local-etale means:



      • $f$ is a localization of a finitely generated morphism

      • $f$ is flat and unramified






      share|cite|improve this question













      I'm trying to understand the proof of the following lemma in Freitag/Kiehl, "Etale Cohomology...":




      1.5 Lemma. Let $A rightarrow B$ be a finitely generated local homomorphism. We assume that it is injective and that $A$ is a normal ring. If $B$ is unramified over $A$, then $B$ is a local-etale $A$-algebra.




      It had previously been shown that $B=tildeB/mathfrak a$, where $tilde B$ is local-etale over $A$. Taking this for granted, the proof continues:




      As $A$ is normal, so is $tilde B$ ... ,and thus without zero divisors. From the injectivity of $A rightarrow B$ we conclude $mathfrak a = 0$.




      I don't understand how we conclude that $mathfrak a =0$ based on the preceding information. (I accept that $tildeB$ is normal.) Would someone be kind enough to help me understand?



      Note: $f: A rightarrow B$ local-etale means:



      • $f$ is a localization of a finitely generated morphism

      • $f$ is flat and unramified








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      edited Jul 22 at 16:33
























      asked Jul 22 at 16:22









      rj7k8

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