Prove that Z(integers) and A = a = 4r + 2 for some r ∈Z have the same cardinality

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I'm having trouble coming up with a proof.



I know that to how an equal cardinality I must show each of the sets has the same numbers of elements (in this case infinite integers). I have begun my proof as follows:



$ a = 4r + 2$ for some $r in Z$



Because $a$ is an integer than $a$ means that some integer is equal to $4r+2$.



Because an integer can be positive or negative, we must show that $a$ is either $2k$ or $2k+1$




Case 1: Show $a$ is even




$a = 4r+2$



$a = 4(2k)+2$



$a = 8k+2$



$a = 2(4k+1)$



$a = 2(n)$




Case 2: show that $a$ is odd




$a = 4r+2$



$a = 4(2k+1)+2$



$a = 8k+6$



$a = 2(4k+2)+1$



$a = 2(n)+1$



Because we have proven $a$ is an even or odd integer then some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer. Thus for whatever $a$, there is an integer $r$ that can represent it and thus they have the same cardinality.



Is my proof proof correct and if not could you explain the correct process I should be taking?







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  • 2




    It's not really clear to me what you mean when you say that "some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer". If you want to show that two sets have the same cardinality, the best way is usually to define an explicit function between them and show it is a bijection. In this case, $f(r) = 4r+2$ seems like a good candidate...
    – Daniel Mroz
    Aug 3 at 12:56











  • I'm not sure If I follow. What would be the next step to solve for cardinality.
    – Jlee
    Aug 3 at 14:44














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












I'm having trouble coming up with a proof.



I know that to how an equal cardinality I must show each of the sets has the same numbers of elements (in this case infinite integers). I have begun my proof as follows:



$ a = 4r + 2$ for some $r in Z$



Because $a$ is an integer than $a$ means that some integer is equal to $4r+2$.



Because an integer can be positive or negative, we must show that $a$ is either $2k$ or $2k+1$




Case 1: Show $a$ is even




$a = 4r+2$



$a = 4(2k)+2$



$a = 8k+2$



$a = 2(4k+1)$



$a = 2(n)$




Case 2: show that $a$ is odd




$a = 4r+2$



$a = 4(2k+1)+2$



$a = 8k+6$



$a = 2(4k+2)+1$



$a = 2(n)+1$



Because we have proven $a$ is an even or odd integer then some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer. Thus for whatever $a$, there is an integer $r$ that can represent it and thus they have the same cardinality.



Is my proof proof correct and if not could you explain the correct process I should be taking?







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 2




    It's not really clear to me what you mean when you say that "some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer". If you want to show that two sets have the same cardinality, the best way is usually to define an explicit function between them and show it is a bijection. In this case, $f(r) = 4r+2$ seems like a good candidate...
    – Daniel Mroz
    Aug 3 at 12:56











  • I'm not sure If I follow. What would be the next step to solve for cardinality.
    – Jlee
    Aug 3 at 14:44












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











I'm having trouble coming up with a proof.



I know that to how an equal cardinality I must show each of the sets has the same numbers of elements (in this case infinite integers). I have begun my proof as follows:



$ a = 4r + 2$ for some $r in Z$



Because $a$ is an integer than $a$ means that some integer is equal to $4r+2$.



Because an integer can be positive or negative, we must show that $a$ is either $2k$ or $2k+1$




Case 1: Show $a$ is even




$a = 4r+2$



$a = 4(2k)+2$



$a = 8k+2$



$a = 2(4k+1)$



$a = 2(n)$




Case 2: show that $a$ is odd




$a = 4r+2$



$a = 4(2k+1)+2$



$a = 8k+6$



$a = 2(4k+2)+1$



$a = 2(n)+1$



Because we have proven $a$ is an even or odd integer then some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer. Thus for whatever $a$, there is an integer $r$ that can represent it and thus they have the same cardinality.



Is my proof proof correct and if not could you explain the correct process I should be taking?







share|cite|improve this question













I'm having trouble coming up with a proof.



I know that to how an equal cardinality I must show each of the sets has the same numbers of elements (in this case infinite integers). I have begun my proof as follows:



$ a = 4r + 2$ for some $r in Z$



Because $a$ is an integer than $a$ means that some integer is equal to $4r+2$.



Because an integer can be positive or negative, we must show that $a$ is either $2k$ or $2k+1$




Case 1: Show $a$ is even




$a = 4r+2$



$a = 4(2k)+2$



$a = 8k+2$



$a = 2(4k+1)$



$a = 2(n)$




Case 2: show that $a$ is odd




$a = 4r+2$



$a = 4(2k+1)+2$



$a = 8k+6$



$a = 2(4k+2)+1$



$a = 2(n)+1$



Because we have proven $a$ is an even or odd integer then some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer. Thus for whatever $a$, there is an integer $r$ that can represent it and thus they have the same cardinality.



Is my proof proof correct and if not could you explain the correct process I should be taking?









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 3 at 15:23









Jneven

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asked Aug 3 at 12:50









Jlee

342




342







  • 2




    It's not really clear to me what you mean when you say that "some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer". If you want to show that two sets have the same cardinality, the best way is usually to define an explicit function between them and show it is a bijection. In this case, $f(r) = 4r+2$ seems like a good candidate...
    – Daniel Mroz
    Aug 3 at 12:56











  • I'm not sure If I follow. What would be the next step to solve for cardinality.
    – Jlee
    Aug 3 at 14:44












  • 2




    It's not really clear to me what you mean when you say that "some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer". If you want to show that two sets have the same cardinality, the best way is usually to define an explicit function between them and show it is a bijection. In this case, $f(r) = 4r+2$ seems like a good candidate...
    – Daniel Mroz
    Aug 3 at 12:56











  • I'm not sure If I follow. What would be the next step to solve for cardinality.
    – Jlee
    Aug 3 at 14:44







2




2




It's not really clear to me what you mean when you say that "some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer". If you want to show that two sets have the same cardinality, the best way is usually to define an explicit function between them and show it is a bijection. In this case, $f(r) = 4r+2$ seems like a good candidate...
– Daniel Mroz
Aug 3 at 12:56





It's not really clear to me what you mean when you say that "some $a$ can be represented by some even or odd integer". If you want to show that two sets have the same cardinality, the best way is usually to define an explicit function between them and show it is a bijection. In this case, $f(r) = 4r+2$ seems like a good candidate...
– Daniel Mroz
Aug 3 at 12:56













I'm not sure If I follow. What would be the next step to solve for cardinality.
– Jlee
Aug 3 at 14:44




I'm not sure If I follow. What would be the next step to solve for cardinality.
– Jlee
Aug 3 at 14:44










1 Answer
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We say that $A$ and $B$ have the same cardinality if there exists a bijection between them, that is, a function $f : A to B$ such that:



  1. (Injective) Whenever $f(x) = f(y)$ for $x,y$ in $A$ we have $x=y$, and

  2. (Surjective) For any $y$ in $B$ there is an $x$ in $A$ with $f(x)=y$.

So in this case we'll take $B$ to be $mathbbZ$ (the integers), and $A$ the set $a in mathbbZ : a=4r+2 text for some r in mathbbZ $.



Let's consider the function $f(x) = 4x+2$.



Firstly, if $r$ is in $mathbbZ$, then $f(r) = 4r+2$ for an integer $r$, so $f(r) in A$. This tells us that $f$ is indeed a function from $mathbbZ$ to $A$. Now we want to show that it is a bijection.



  1. Suppose we have $f(x) = f(y)$ for integers $x$ and $y$. This means that $4x+2 = 4y+2$. Can you see how this implies that $x=y$?

  2. Let's pick any element $a$ in $A$. By the definition of $A$ we know that there is some integer $r$ with $a=4r+2$. So $f(r)=a$.

And now we've shown that $f$ is a bijection between $mathbbZ$ and $A$, therefore the two sets have the same cardinality.






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    We say that $A$ and $B$ have the same cardinality if there exists a bijection between them, that is, a function $f : A to B$ such that:



    1. (Injective) Whenever $f(x) = f(y)$ for $x,y$ in $A$ we have $x=y$, and

    2. (Surjective) For any $y$ in $B$ there is an $x$ in $A$ with $f(x)=y$.

    So in this case we'll take $B$ to be $mathbbZ$ (the integers), and $A$ the set $a in mathbbZ : a=4r+2 text for some r in mathbbZ $.



    Let's consider the function $f(x) = 4x+2$.



    Firstly, if $r$ is in $mathbbZ$, then $f(r) = 4r+2$ for an integer $r$, so $f(r) in A$. This tells us that $f$ is indeed a function from $mathbbZ$ to $A$. Now we want to show that it is a bijection.



    1. Suppose we have $f(x) = f(y)$ for integers $x$ and $y$. This means that $4x+2 = 4y+2$. Can you see how this implies that $x=y$?

    2. Let's pick any element $a$ in $A$. By the definition of $A$ we know that there is some integer $r$ with $a=4r+2$. So $f(r)=a$.

    And now we've shown that $f$ is a bijection between $mathbbZ$ and $A$, therefore the two sets have the same cardinality.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      We say that $A$ and $B$ have the same cardinality if there exists a bijection between them, that is, a function $f : A to B$ such that:



      1. (Injective) Whenever $f(x) = f(y)$ for $x,y$ in $A$ we have $x=y$, and

      2. (Surjective) For any $y$ in $B$ there is an $x$ in $A$ with $f(x)=y$.

      So in this case we'll take $B$ to be $mathbbZ$ (the integers), and $A$ the set $a in mathbbZ : a=4r+2 text for some r in mathbbZ $.



      Let's consider the function $f(x) = 4x+2$.



      Firstly, if $r$ is in $mathbbZ$, then $f(r) = 4r+2$ for an integer $r$, so $f(r) in A$. This tells us that $f$ is indeed a function from $mathbbZ$ to $A$. Now we want to show that it is a bijection.



      1. Suppose we have $f(x) = f(y)$ for integers $x$ and $y$. This means that $4x+2 = 4y+2$. Can you see how this implies that $x=y$?

      2. Let's pick any element $a$ in $A$. By the definition of $A$ we know that there is some integer $r$ with $a=4r+2$. So $f(r)=a$.

      And now we've shown that $f$ is a bijection between $mathbbZ$ and $A$, therefore the two sets have the same cardinality.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        We say that $A$ and $B$ have the same cardinality if there exists a bijection between them, that is, a function $f : A to B$ such that:



        1. (Injective) Whenever $f(x) = f(y)$ for $x,y$ in $A$ we have $x=y$, and

        2. (Surjective) For any $y$ in $B$ there is an $x$ in $A$ with $f(x)=y$.

        So in this case we'll take $B$ to be $mathbbZ$ (the integers), and $A$ the set $a in mathbbZ : a=4r+2 text for some r in mathbbZ $.



        Let's consider the function $f(x) = 4x+2$.



        Firstly, if $r$ is in $mathbbZ$, then $f(r) = 4r+2$ for an integer $r$, so $f(r) in A$. This tells us that $f$ is indeed a function from $mathbbZ$ to $A$. Now we want to show that it is a bijection.



        1. Suppose we have $f(x) = f(y)$ for integers $x$ and $y$. This means that $4x+2 = 4y+2$. Can you see how this implies that $x=y$?

        2. Let's pick any element $a$ in $A$. By the definition of $A$ we know that there is some integer $r$ with $a=4r+2$. So $f(r)=a$.

        And now we've shown that $f$ is a bijection between $mathbbZ$ and $A$, therefore the two sets have the same cardinality.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        We say that $A$ and $B$ have the same cardinality if there exists a bijection between them, that is, a function $f : A to B$ such that:



        1. (Injective) Whenever $f(x) = f(y)$ for $x,y$ in $A$ we have $x=y$, and

        2. (Surjective) For any $y$ in $B$ there is an $x$ in $A$ with $f(x)=y$.

        So in this case we'll take $B$ to be $mathbbZ$ (the integers), and $A$ the set $a in mathbbZ : a=4r+2 text for some r in mathbbZ $.



        Let's consider the function $f(x) = 4x+2$.



        Firstly, if $r$ is in $mathbbZ$, then $f(r) = 4r+2$ for an integer $r$, so $f(r) in A$. This tells us that $f$ is indeed a function from $mathbbZ$ to $A$. Now we want to show that it is a bijection.



        1. Suppose we have $f(x) = f(y)$ for integers $x$ and $y$. This means that $4x+2 = 4y+2$. Can you see how this implies that $x=y$?

        2. Let's pick any element $a$ in $A$. By the definition of $A$ we know that there is some integer $r$ with $a=4r+2$. So $f(r)=a$.

        And now we've shown that $f$ is a bijection between $mathbbZ$ and $A$, therefore the two sets have the same cardinality.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Aug 3 at 15:08









        Daniel Mroz

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