Show that, for every metric $d$, the metrics $d/(1+d)$ and $min1,d$ are equivalent

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The actual problem looks like-




Let, $(X,d)$ be a metric space where $Xneemptyset$. Define $d_1$ and
$d_2$ on $Xtimes X$ by $d_1(x,y)=fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)$,
$d_2(x,y)=min1, d(x,y)quadforall(x,y)in Xtimes X.$(It is easy
to verify $d_1,d_2$ are two metrics on $X$.) Show that, $d_1, d_2$ are
equivalent metrics on $X$.




Firstly, I'll use the standard theorem to prove two metrics on a non-empty set are equivalent-
Two metrics $d_1$ and $d_2$ on a non-empty set $X$ are equivalent if and only if for each $xin X$ and each open ball $B_d_i (x,r)$ in $(X,d_i)$(for some $r>0$), there is an $s>0$ such that $B_d_j (x,s)subseteq B_d_i (x,r)$, for $i, j=1,2$ and $ine j$.

Now, to solve the problem, I break it into to parts- If I can show that both of $d_1,d_2$ are equivalent with the metric $d$, then we are done.

I'm able to show $d$ and $d_2$ are equivalent in the following way-

Let, $xin X$ and $B_d_2 (x,r)$ be an open ball in $(X, d_2)$ for some $r>0$. Then $B_d (x,r)subseteq B_d_2 (x,r)$.

Again, if we take an open ball $B_d (x,t)$ in $(X,d)$ for some $t>0$. Then $B_d_2 (x,s)subseteq B_d (x,t)$, where $s=min 1,t$.



But how to show $d_1$ and $d$ are equivalent metrics in $X$?

Can anyone assist me to prove $d_1$ and $d$ are equivalent metrics on $X$? Thanks for your help in advance.







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  • 1




    As an alternative, show that $$d/(1+d)leqslantmin1,dleqslant2d/(1+d)$$
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 7:01














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












The actual problem looks like-




Let, $(X,d)$ be a metric space where $Xneemptyset$. Define $d_1$ and
$d_2$ on $Xtimes X$ by $d_1(x,y)=fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)$,
$d_2(x,y)=min1, d(x,y)quadforall(x,y)in Xtimes X.$(It is easy
to verify $d_1,d_2$ are two metrics on $X$.) Show that, $d_1, d_2$ are
equivalent metrics on $X$.




Firstly, I'll use the standard theorem to prove two metrics on a non-empty set are equivalent-
Two metrics $d_1$ and $d_2$ on a non-empty set $X$ are equivalent if and only if for each $xin X$ and each open ball $B_d_i (x,r)$ in $(X,d_i)$(for some $r>0$), there is an $s>0$ such that $B_d_j (x,s)subseteq B_d_i (x,r)$, for $i, j=1,2$ and $ine j$.

Now, to solve the problem, I break it into to parts- If I can show that both of $d_1,d_2$ are equivalent with the metric $d$, then we are done.

I'm able to show $d$ and $d_2$ are equivalent in the following way-

Let, $xin X$ and $B_d_2 (x,r)$ be an open ball in $(X, d_2)$ for some $r>0$. Then $B_d (x,r)subseteq B_d_2 (x,r)$.

Again, if we take an open ball $B_d (x,t)$ in $(X,d)$ for some $t>0$. Then $B_d_2 (x,s)subseteq B_d (x,t)$, where $s=min 1,t$.



But how to show $d_1$ and $d$ are equivalent metrics in $X$?

Can anyone assist me to prove $d_1$ and $d$ are equivalent metrics on $X$? Thanks for your help in advance.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    As an alternative, show that $$d/(1+d)leqslantmin1,dleqslant2d/(1+d)$$
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 7:01












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











The actual problem looks like-




Let, $(X,d)$ be a metric space where $Xneemptyset$. Define $d_1$ and
$d_2$ on $Xtimes X$ by $d_1(x,y)=fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)$,
$d_2(x,y)=min1, d(x,y)quadforall(x,y)in Xtimes X.$(It is easy
to verify $d_1,d_2$ are two metrics on $X$.) Show that, $d_1, d_2$ are
equivalent metrics on $X$.




Firstly, I'll use the standard theorem to prove two metrics on a non-empty set are equivalent-
Two metrics $d_1$ and $d_2$ on a non-empty set $X$ are equivalent if and only if for each $xin X$ and each open ball $B_d_i (x,r)$ in $(X,d_i)$(for some $r>0$), there is an $s>0$ such that $B_d_j (x,s)subseteq B_d_i (x,r)$, for $i, j=1,2$ and $ine j$.

Now, to solve the problem, I break it into to parts- If I can show that both of $d_1,d_2$ are equivalent with the metric $d$, then we are done.

I'm able to show $d$ and $d_2$ are equivalent in the following way-

Let, $xin X$ and $B_d_2 (x,r)$ be an open ball in $(X, d_2)$ for some $r>0$. Then $B_d (x,r)subseteq B_d_2 (x,r)$.

Again, if we take an open ball $B_d (x,t)$ in $(X,d)$ for some $t>0$. Then $B_d_2 (x,s)subseteq B_d (x,t)$, where $s=min 1,t$.



But how to show $d_1$ and $d$ are equivalent metrics in $X$?

Can anyone assist me to prove $d_1$ and $d$ are equivalent metrics on $X$? Thanks for your help in advance.







share|cite|improve this question













The actual problem looks like-




Let, $(X,d)$ be a metric space where $Xneemptyset$. Define $d_1$ and
$d_2$ on $Xtimes X$ by $d_1(x,y)=fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)$,
$d_2(x,y)=min1, d(x,y)quadforall(x,y)in Xtimes X.$(It is easy
to verify $d_1,d_2$ are two metrics on $X$.) Show that, $d_1, d_2$ are
equivalent metrics on $X$.




Firstly, I'll use the standard theorem to prove two metrics on a non-empty set are equivalent-
Two metrics $d_1$ and $d_2$ on a non-empty set $X$ are equivalent if and only if for each $xin X$ and each open ball $B_d_i (x,r)$ in $(X,d_i)$(for some $r>0$), there is an $s>0$ such that $B_d_j (x,s)subseteq B_d_i (x,r)$, for $i, j=1,2$ and $ine j$.

Now, to solve the problem, I break it into to parts- If I can show that both of $d_1,d_2$ are equivalent with the metric $d$, then we are done.

I'm able to show $d$ and $d_2$ are equivalent in the following way-

Let, $xin X$ and $B_d_2 (x,r)$ be an open ball in $(X, d_2)$ for some $r>0$. Then $B_d (x,r)subseteq B_d_2 (x,r)$.

Again, if we take an open ball $B_d (x,t)$ in $(X,d)$ for some $t>0$. Then $B_d_2 (x,s)subseteq B_d (x,t)$, where $s=min 1,t$.



But how to show $d_1$ and $d$ are equivalent metrics in $X$?

Can anyone assist me to prove $d_1$ and $d$ are equivalent metrics on $X$? Thanks for your help in advance.









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share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 26 at 6:58









Did

242k23208441




242k23208441









asked Jul 26 at 6:38









Biswarup Saha

2298




2298







  • 1




    As an alternative, show that $$d/(1+d)leqslantmin1,dleqslant2d/(1+d)$$
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 7:01












  • 1




    As an alternative, show that $$d/(1+d)leqslantmin1,dleqslant2d/(1+d)$$
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 7:01







1




1




As an alternative, show that $$d/(1+d)leqslantmin1,dleqslant2d/(1+d)$$
– Did
Jul 26 at 7:01




As an alternative, show that $$d/(1+d)leqslantmin1,dleqslant2d/(1+d)$$
– Did
Jul 26 at 7:01










3 Answers
3






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oldest

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0
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Just verify that $B_d(x,r)$ contains $B_d_1(x,s)$ where $s=
frac r 1+r$ and $B_d_1(x,r)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ where $s=
frac r 1-r$ Note: it is enough to consider the case when $r<1$: if $rgeq 1$ first find $s$ such that $B_d_1(x,frac 1 2)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ and note that $B_d(x,s)subset B_d_1(x,frac 1 2) subset B_d_1(x,r)$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Hmmm, for $r=2$, say?
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 7:02










  • Kavi Rama Murthy, if $r>1$, then $s<0$??
    – Biswarup Saha
    Jul 26 at 7:13










  • @BiswarupSaha to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 7:27










  • @Did to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 7:28










  • Sorry but I wonder what is the point of your comment. It is good that you have added some explanations to the answer though.
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 10:36

















up vote
0
down vote













For proving that $d$ and $d_1$ are equivalent metrics it is enough to prove that for any $1>r>0$ there exist $s$ and $t$ positive real numbers s.t. for any $xin X$ there holds $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$



Let suppose that $s=fracr1+r$. Let $yin B_d_1(x,s),$ so $d_1(x,y)<sRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<sRightarrow d(x,y)<fracs1-s=r.$ So we proved that $yin B_d_1(x,s) Rightarrow yin B_d(x,r)$ or $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r).$



Now, let $t=fracr1+r$ and $yin B_d(x,r),$ so $d(x,y)<rRightarrow frac1d(x,y)>frac1rRightarrow 1+frac1d(x,y)>1+frac1rRightarrow frac1+d(x,y)d(x,y)>frac1+rrRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<fracr1+r=t.$ So we proved that $yin B_d(x,r) Rightarrow yin B_d_1(x,t)$ or $B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • 'there exist $r,s$ and $t$ ...' is not enough.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 8:21










  • Look at the edited version.
    – Emin
    Jul 26 at 8:24

















up vote
0
down vote













Note that $d_1(x,y)leq d(x,y)$ for all $x,yin X$, since $1+d(x,y)geq 1$. Thus, it follows that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d_1(x)$ for all $xin X$ and $varepsilon>0$. Hence, if $Usubseteq X$ is $d_1$-open, it is also $d$-open.



Conversely, suppose that $U$ is $d$-open and let $xin U$. By definition of an open set in a metric space, there exists $varepsilon>0$ such that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$. Now let $delta=minvarepsilon/2,1/2$. If $d_1(x,y)<delta$ then $d(x,y)<varepsilon$, because:
$$d(x,y)=fracd_1(x,y)1-d_1(x,y)leq 2d_1(x,y)< epsilon$$
Hence, $B_delta^d_1(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$, which implies that $U$ is $d_1$-open.



Thus, by the above, $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_1)$ are topologically equivalent.



Since you have shown that $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent, it follows from the fact that topological equivalence is a equivalence relation that $(X,d_1)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent.






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    3 Answers
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    active

    oldest

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    3 Answers
    3






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Just verify that $B_d(x,r)$ contains $B_d_1(x,s)$ where $s=
    frac r 1+r$ and $B_d_1(x,r)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ where $s=
    frac r 1-r$ Note: it is enough to consider the case when $r<1$: if $rgeq 1$ first find $s$ such that $B_d_1(x,frac 1 2)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ and note that $B_d(x,s)subset B_d_1(x,frac 1 2) subset B_d_1(x,r)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Hmmm, for $r=2$, say?
      – Did
      Jul 26 at 7:02










    • Kavi Rama Murthy, if $r>1$, then $s<0$??
      – Biswarup Saha
      Jul 26 at 7:13










    • @BiswarupSaha to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 7:27










    • @Did to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 7:28










    • Sorry but I wonder what is the point of your comment. It is good that you have added some explanations to the answer though.
      – Did
      Jul 26 at 10:36














    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Just verify that $B_d(x,r)$ contains $B_d_1(x,s)$ where $s=
    frac r 1+r$ and $B_d_1(x,r)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ where $s=
    frac r 1-r$ Note: it is enough to consider the case when $r<1$: if $rgeq 1$ first find $s$ such that $B_d_1(x,frac 1 2)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ and note that $B_d(x,s)subset B_d_1(x,frac 1 2) subset B_d_1(x,r)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • Hmmm, for $r=2$, say?
      – Did
      Jul 26 at 7:02










    • Kavi Rama Murthy, if $r>1$, then $s<0$??
      – Biswarup Saha
      Jul 26 at 7:13










    • @BiswarupSaha to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 7:27










    • @Did to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 7:28










    • Sorry but I wonder what is the point of your comment. It is good that you have added some explanations to the answer though.
      – Did
      Jul 26 at 10:36












    up vote
    0
    down vote










    up vote
    0
    down vote









    Just verify that $B_d(x,r)$ contains $B_d_1(x,s)$ where $s=
    frac r 1+r$ and $B_d_1(x,r)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ where $s=
    frac r 1-r$ Note: it is enough to consider the case when $r<1$: if $rgeq 1$ first find $s$ such that $B_d_1(x,frac 1 2)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ and note that $B_d(x,s)subset B_d_1(x,frac 1 2) subset B_d_1(x,r)$.






    share|cite|improve this answer















    Just verify that $B_d(x,r)$ contains $B_d_1(x,s)$ where $s=
    frac r 1+r$ and $B_d_1(x,r)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ where $s=
    frac r 1-r$ Note: it is enough to consider the case when $r<1$: if $rgeq 1$ first find $s$ such that $B_d_1(x,frac 1 2)$ contains $B_d(x,s)$ and note that $B_d(x,s)subset B_d_1(x,frac 1 2) subset B_d_1(x,r)$.







    share|cite|improve this answer















    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer








    edited Jul 26 at 7:25


























    answered Jul 26 at 6:46









    Kavi Rama Murthy

    20k2829




    20k2829











    • Hmmm, for $r=2$, say?
      – Did
      Jul 26 at 7:02










    • Kavi Rama Murthy, if $r>1$, then $s<0$??
      – Biswarup Saha
      Jul 26 at 7:13










    • @BiswarupSaha to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 7:27










    • @Did to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 7:28










    • Sorry but I wonder what is the point of your comment. It is good that you have added some explanations to the answer though.
      – Did
      Jul 26 at 10:36
















    • Hmmm, for $r=2$, say?
      – Did
      Jul 26 at 7:02










    • Kavi Rama Murthy, if $r>1$, then $s<0$??
      – Biswarup Saha
      Jul 26 at 7:13










    • @BiswarupSaha to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 7:27










    • @Did to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 7:28










    • Sorry but I wonder what is the point of your comment. It is good that you have added some explanations to the answer though.
      – Did
      Jul 26 at 10:36















    Hmmm, for $r=2$, say?
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 7:02




    Hmmm, for $r=2$, say?
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 7:02












    Kavi Rama Murthy, if $r>1$, then $s<0$??
    – Biswarup Saha
    Jul 26 at 7:13




    Kavi Rama Murthy, if $r>1$, then $s<0$??
    – Biswarup Saha
    Jul 26 at 7:13












    @BiswarupSaha to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 7:27




    @BiswarupSaha to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 7:27












    @Did to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 7:28




    @Did to show that two metrics are equivalent it is enough to consider small balls. This is very elementary and down-voting is not justified for this. Anyway I have edited the answer now.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 7:28












    Sorry but I wonder what is the point of your comment. It is good that you have added some explanations to the answer though.
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 10:36




    Sorry but I wonder what is the point of your comment. It is good that you have added some explanations to the answer though.
    – Did
    Jul 26 at 10:36










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    For proving that $d$ and $d_1$ are equivalent metrics it is enough to prove that for any $1>r>0$ there exist $s$ and $t$ positive real numbers s.t. for any $xin X$ there holds $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$



    Let suppose that $s=fracr1+r$. Let $yin B_d_1(x,s),$ so $d_1(x,y)<sRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<sRightarrow d(x,y)<fracs1-s=r.$ So we proved that $yin B_d_1(x,s) Rightarrow yin B_d(x,r)$ or $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r).$



    Now, let $t=fracr1+r$ and $yin B_d(x,r),$ so $d(x,y)<rRightarrow frac1d(x,y)>frac1rRightarrow 1+frac1d(x,y)>1+frac1rRightarrow frac1+d(x,y)d(x,y)>frac1+rrRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<fracr1+r=t.$ So we proved that $yin B_d(x,r) Rightarrow yin B_d_1(x,t)$ or $B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • 'there exist $r,s$ and $t$ ...' is not enough.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 8:21










    • Look at the edited version.
      – Emin
      Jul 26 at 8:24














    up vote
    0
    down vote













    For proving that $d$ and $d_1$ are equivalent metrics it is enough to prove that for any $1>r>0$ there exist $s$ and $t$ positive real numbers s.t. for any $xin X$ there holds $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$



    Let suppose that $s=fracr1+r$. Let $yin B_d_1(x,s),$ so $d_1(x,y)<sRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<sRightarrow d(x,y)<fracs1-s=r.$ So we proved that $yin B_d_1(x,s) Rightarrow yin B_d(x,r)$ or $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r).$



    Now, let $t=fracr1+r$ and $yin B_d(x,r),$ so $d(x,y)<rRightarrow frac1d(x,y)>frac1rRightarrow 1+frac1d(x,y)>1+frac1rRightarrow frac1+d(x,y)d(x,y)>frac1+rrRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<fracr1+r=t.$ So we proved that $yin B_d(x,r) Rightarrow yin B_d_1(x,t)$ or $B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$






    share|cite|improve this answer























    • 'there exist $r,s$ and $t$ ...' is not enough.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 8:21










    • Look at the edited version.
      – Emin
      Jul 26 at 8:24












    up vote
    0
    down vote










    up vote
    0
    down vote









    For proving that $d$ and $d_1$ are equivalent metrics it is enough to prove that for any $1>r>0$ there exist $s$ and $t$ positive real numbers s.t. for any $xin X$ there holds $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$



    Let suppose that $s=fracr1+r$. Let $yin B_d_1(x,s),$ so $d_1(x,y)<sRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<sRightarrow d(x,y)<fracs1-s=r.$ So we proved that $yin B_d_1(x,s) Rightarrow yin B_d(x,r)$ or $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r).$



    Now, let $t=fracr1+r$ and $yin B_d(x,r),$ so $d(x,y)<rRightarrow frac1d(x,y)>frac1rRightarrow 1+frac1d(x,y)>1+frac1rRightarrow frac1+d(x,y)d(x,y)>frac1+rrRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<fracr1+r=t.$ So we proved that $yin B_d(x,r) Rightarrow yin B_d_1(x,t)$ or $B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$






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    For proving that $d$ and $d_1$ are equivalent metrics it is enough to prove that for any $1>r>0$ there exist $s$ and $t$ positive real numbers s.t. for any $xin X$ there holds $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$



    Let suppose that $s=fracr1+r$. Let $yin B_d_1(x,s),$ so $d_1(x,y)<sRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<sRightarrow d(x,y)<fracs1-s=r.$ So we proved that $yin B_d_1(x,s) Rightarrow yin B_d(x,r)$ or $B_d_1(x,s)subseteq B_d(x,r).$



    Now, let $t=fracr1+r$ and $yin B_d(x,r),$ so $d(x,y)<rRightarrow frac1d(x,y)>frac1rRightarrow 1+frac1d(x,y)>1+frac1rRightarrow frac1+d(x,y)d(x,y)>frac1+rrRightarrow fracd(x,y)1+d(x,y)<fracr1+r=t.$ So we proved that $yin B_d(x,r) Rightarrow yin B_d_1(x,t)$ or $B_d(x,r)subseteq B_d_1(x,t).$







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    edited Jul 26 at 8:31


























    answered Jul 26 at 8:18









    Emin

    1,27621330




    1,27621330











    • 'there exist $r,s$ and $t$ ...' is not enough.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 8:21










    • Look at the edited version.
      – Emin
      Jul 26 at 8:24
















    • 'there exist $r,s$ and $t$ ...' is not enough.
      – Kavi Rama Murthy
      Jul 26 at 8:21










    • Look at the edited version.
      – Emin
      Jul 26 at 8:24















    'there exist $r,s$ and $t$ ...' is not enough.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 8:21




    'there exist $r,s$ and $t$ ...' is not enough.
    – Kavi Rama Murthy
    Jul 26 at 8:21












    Look at the edited version.
    – Emin
    Jul 26 at 8:24




    Look at the edited version.
    – Emin
    Jul 26 at 8:24










    up vote
    0
    down vote













    Note that $d_1(x,y)leq d(x,y)$ for all $x,yin X$, since $1+d(x,y)geq 1$. Thus, it follows that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d_1(x)$ for all $xin X$ and $varepsilon>0$. Hence, if $Usubseteq X$ is $d_1$-open, it is also $d$-open.



    Conversely, suppose that $U$ is $d$-open and let $xin U$. By definition of an open set in a metric space, there exists $varepsilon>0$ such that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$. Now let $delta=minvarepsilon/2,1/2$. If $d_1(x,y)<delta$ then $d(x,y)<varepsilon$, because:
    $$d(x,y)=fracd_1(x,y)1-d_1(x,y)leq 2d_1(x,y)< epsilon$$
    Hence, $B_delta^d_1(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$, which implies that $U$ is $d_1$-open.



    Thus, by the above, $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_1)$ are topologically equivalent.



    Since you have shown that $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent, it follows from the fact that topological equivalence is a equivalence relation that $(X,d_1)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent.






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      up vote
      0
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      Note that $d_1(x,y)leq d(x,y)$ for all $x,yin X$, since $1+d(x,y)geq 1$. Thus, it follows that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d_1(x)$ for all $xin X$ and $varepsilon>0$. Hence, if $Usubseteq X$ is $d_1$-open, it is also $d$-open.



      Conversely, suppose that $U$ is $d$-open and let $xin U$. By definition of an open set in a metric space, there exists $varepsilon>0$ such that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$. Now let $delta=minvarepsilon/2,1/2$. If $d_1(x,y)<delta$ then $d(x,y)<varepsilon$, because:
      $$d(x,y)=fracd_1(x,y)1-d_1(x,y)leq 2d_1(x,y)< epsilon$$
      Hence, $B_delta^d_1(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$, which implies that $U$ is $d_1$-open.



      Thus, by the above, $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_1)$ are topologically equivalent.



      Since you have shown that $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent, it follows from the fact that topological equivalence is a equivalence relation that $(X,d_1)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent.






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        Note that $d_1(x,y)leq d(x,y)$ for all $x,yin X$, since $1+d(x,y)geq 1$. Thus, it follows that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d_1(x)$ for all $xin X$ and $varepsilon>0$. Hence, if $Usubseteq X$ is $d_1$-open, it is also $d$-open.



        Conversely, suppose that $U$ is $d$-open and let $xin U$. By definition of an open set in a metric space, there exists $varepsilon>0$ such that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$. Now let $delta=minvarepsilon/2,1/2$. If $d_1(x,y)<delta$ then $d(x,y)<varepsilon$, because:
        $$d(x,y)=fracd_1(x,y)1-d_1(x,y)leq 2d_1(x,y)< epsilon$$
        Hence, $B_delta^d_1(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$, which implies that $U$ is $d_1$-open.



        Thus, by the above, $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_1)$ are topologically equivalent.



        Since you have shown that $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent, it follows from the fact that topological equivalence is a equivalence relation that $(X,d_1)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent.






        share|cite|improve this answer















        Note that $d_1(x,y)leq d(x,y)$ for all $x,yin X$, since $1+d(x,y)geq 1$. Thus, it follows that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d_1(x)$ for all $xin X$ and $varepsilon>0$. Hence, if $Usubseteq X$ is $d_1$-open, it is also $d$-open.



        Conversely, suppose that $U$ is $d$-open and let $xin U$. By definition of an open set in a metric space, there exists $varepsilon>0$ such that $B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$. Now let $delta=minvarepsilon/2,1/2$. If $d_1(x,y)<delta$ then $d(x,y)<varepsilon$, because:
        $$d(x,y)=fracd_1(x,y)1-d_1(x,y)leq 2d_1(x,y)< epsilon$$
        Hence, $B_delta^d_1(x)subseteq B_varepsilon^d(x)subseteq U$, which implies that $U$ is $d_1$-open.



        Thus, by the above, $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_1)$ are topologically equivalent.



        Since you have shown that $(X,d)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent, it follows from the fact that topological equivalence is a equivalence relation that $(X,d_1)$ and $(X,d_2)$ are topologically equivalent.







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        edited Jul 26 at 8:46


























        answered Jul 26 at 8:08









        projectilemotion

        11k61941




        11k61941






















             

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