Showing $left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1^2+1$

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I wish to show that if $z$ is real, then
$$left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$$




I have shown this result, although my inequality is the wrong way around.



I considered
beginalign
|z^2+1|&leq |z^2|+|1| text(triangle inequality) \
&=|z|^2+1 \ \
Rightarrow |z^2+1|&leq |z|^2+1 \
frac1&geqfrac1z \
frace^iz&geqfrace^izz \
left|frace^izz^2+1right|&geqfrace^-textIm(z)z \
left|frace^izz^2+1right|&geqfrac1z text(if $z$ is real $Rightarrow$ Im$(z)=0$) \
endalign



Where did I go wrong?




Also, I wonder, would this inequality still hold if $z$ was not real?








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  • 1




    It seems to me that there is an equality. Your consideration is not wrong. For complex $z$ the LHS is unbounded while the RHS is bounded, hence the inequality does not hold.
    – Shashi
    Aug 3 at 9:43











  • I am not sure about the last intermediate step, but the circle $|e^iz| $ always is $1$.
    – Nameless
    Aug 3 at 9:54














up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1













I wish to show that if $z$ is real, then
$$left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$$




I have shown this result, although my inequality is the wrong way around.



I considered
beginalign
|z^2+1|&leq |z^2|+|1| text(triangle inequality) \
&=|z|^2+1 \ \
Rightarrow |z^2+1|&leq |z|^2+1 \
frac1&geqfrac1z \
frace^iz&geqfrace^izz \
left|frace^izz^2+1right|&geqfrace^-textIm(z)z \
left|frace^izz^2+1right|&geqfrac1z text(if $z$ is real $Rightarrow$ Im$(z)=0$) \
endalign



Where did I go wrong?




Also, I wonder, would this inequality still hold if $z$ was not real?








share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    It seems to me that there is an equality. Your consideration is not wrong. For complex $z$ the LHS is unbounded while the RHS is bounded, hence the inequality does not hold.
    – Shashi
    Aug 3 at 9:43











  • I am not sure about the last intermediate step, but the circle $|e^iz| $ always is $1$.
    – Nameless
    Aug 3 at 9:54












up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1









up vote
3
down vote

favorite
1






1






I wish to show that if $z$ is real, then
$$left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$$




I have shown this result, although my inequality is the wrong way around.



I considered
beginalign
|z^2+1|&leq |z^2|+|1| text(triangle inequality) \
&=|z|^2+1 \ \
Rightarrow |z^2+1|&leq |z|^2+1 \
frac1&geqfrac1z \
frace^iz&geqfrace^izz \
left|frace^izz^2+1right|&geqfrace^-textIm(z)z \
left|frace^izz^2+1right|&geqfrac1z text(if $z$ is real $Rightarrow$ Im$(z)=0$) \
endalign



Where did I go wrong?




Also, I wonder, would this inequality still hold if $z$ was not real?








share|cite|improve this question














I wish to show that if $z$ is real, then
$$left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$$




I have shown this result, although my inequality is the wrong way around.



I considered
beginalign
|z^2+1|&leq |z^2|+|1| text(triangle inequality) \
&=|z|^2+1 \ \
Rightarrow |z^2+1|&leq |z|^2+1 \
frac1&geqfrac1z \
frace^iz&geqfrace^izz \
left|frace^izz^2+1right|&geqfrace^-textIm(z)z \
left|frace^izz^2+1right|&geqfrac1z text(if $z$ is real $Rightarrow$ Im$(z)=0$) \
endalign



Where did I go wrong?




Also, I wonder, would this inequality still hold if $z$ was not real?










share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 3 at 9:45









user 108128

18.7k41544




18.7k41544









asked Aug 3 at 9:33









Bell

560112




560112







  • 1




    It seems to me that there is an equality. Your consideration is not wrong. For complex $z$ the LHS is unbounded while the RHS is bounded, hence the inequality does not hold.
    – Shashi
    Aug 3 at 9:43











  • I am not sure about the last intermediate step, but the circle $|e^iz| $ always is $1$.
    – Nameless
    Aug 3 at 9:54












  • 1




    It seems to me that there is an equality. Your consideration is not wrong. For complex $z$ the LHS is unbounded while the RHS is bounded, hence the inequality does not hold.
    – Shashi
    Aug 3 at 9:43











  • I am not sure about the last intermediate step, but the circle $|e^iz| $ always is $1$.
    – Nameless
    Aug 3 at 9:54







1




1




It seems to me that there is an equality. Your consideration is not wrong. For complex $z$ the LHS is unbounded while the RHS is bounded, hence the inequality does not hold.
– Shashi
Aug 3 at 9:43





It seems to me that there is an equality. Your consideration is not wrong. For complex $z$ the LHS is unbounded while the RHS is bounded, hence the inequality does not hold.
– Shashi
Aug 3 at 9:43













I am not sure about the last intermediate step, but the circle $|e^iz| $ always is $1$.
– Nameless
Aug 3 at 9:54




I am not sure about the last intermediate step, but the circle $|e^iz| $ always is $1$.
– Nameless
Aug 3 at 9:54










4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
1
down vote



accepted










We have



$$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=fracleft= frac1left$$



and



$$0leleft|z^2+1right|= |z|^2+1$$



therefore the result follows.






share|cite|improve this answer



















  • 1




    Why doesn't $|e^iz|=1$?
    – Bell
    Aug 3 at 9:52






  • 1




    @Bell Opsss...yes of course $|e^iz|=1$
    – gimusi
    Aug 3 at 9:59






  • 1




    @Bell Yes of course bot inequalities are true and indeed $$(age b) land (ale b) iff a=b$$
    – gimusi
    Aug 3 at 13:32






  • 1




    @Bell Yes exactly!
    – gimusi
    Aug 3 at 13:40






  • 1




    @Bell You are welcome! It's really a plesure can be useful to you and I also learn a lot dealing with your questions here. Bye
    – gimusi
    Aug 3 at 13:47

















up vote
2
down vote













For real $z$ we have $|z|^2=z^2$ and $|e^iz|$=1, hence



$$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$






share|cite|improve this answer




























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    If $z$ is real: $|e^iz|=1$, $|z^2+1|=z^2+1=|z|^2+1$, so that
    $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$



    If $z=x+iy$ is complex, with $y$ a large negative number, then $|e^iz|
    =e^-y$ is huge, and so
    $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|ggfrac1z.$$






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • So in terms of the actual inequality in the question, is this possible to obtain? Or is it a strict equality?
      – Bell
      Aug 3 at 9:53










    • The inequality in the question is true for real $z$, since for real $z$ both sides are equal. It fails for complex $z$; the reverse inequality fails too.
      – Lord Shark the Unknown
      Aug 3 at 9:55










    • I agree that the $left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z$, but I don't understand why $left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$ for real $z$.
      – Bell
      Aug 3 at 9:58











    • @Bell If $a=b$ then $ale b$.
      – Lord Shark the Unknown
      Aug 3 at 10:00










    • I'm a bit embarrassed to say that I don't remember this result. Do you know of a link that may explain it in greater depth? I don't really understand it.
      – Bell
      Aug 3 at 10:02

















    up vote
    1
    down vote













    $geq $ and $leq$ don't contradict each other! When $z$ is real $|z^2+1|=|z|^2+1$. This proves that the stated inequality is actually an equlity for real $z$. To see that the inequality may not hold for complex $z$ take $z=e^-in$ where $n$ is a large positive integer.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      We have



      $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=fracleft= frac1left$$



      and



      $$0leleft|z^2+1right|= |z|^2+1$$



      therefore the result follows.






      share|cite|improve this answer



















      • 1




        Why doesn't $|e^iz|=1$?
        – Bell
        Aug 3 at 9:52






      • 1




        @Bell Opsss...yes of course $|e^iz|=1$
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 9:59






      • 1




        @Bell Yes of course bot inequalities are true and indeed $$(age b) land (ale b) iff a=b$$
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:32






      • 1




        @Bell Yes exactly!
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:40






      • 1




        @Bell You are welcome! It's really a plesure can be useful to you and I also learn a lot dealing with your questions here. Bye
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:47














      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted










      We have



      $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=fracleft= frac1left$$



      and



      $$0leleft|z^2+1right|= |z|^2+1$$



      therefore the result follows.






      share|cite|improve this answer



















      • 1




        Why doesn't $|e^iz|=1$?
        – Bell
        Aug 3 at 9:52






      • 1




        @Bell Opsss...yes of course $|e^iz|=1$
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 9:59






      • 1




        @Bell Yes of course bot inequalities are true and indeed $$(age b) land (ale b) iff a=b$$
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:32






      • 1




        @Bell Yes exactly!
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:40






      • 1




        @Bell You are welcome! It's really a plesure can be useful to you and I also learn a lot dealing with your questions here. Bye
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:47












      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      1
      down vote



      accepted






      We have



      $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=fracleft= frac1left$$



      and



      $$0leleft|z^2+1right|= |z|^2+1$$



      therefore the result follows.






      share|cite|improve this answer















      We have



      $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=fracleft= frac1left$$



      and



      $$0leleft|z^2+1right|= |z|^2+1$$



      therefore the result follows.







      share|cite|improve this answer















      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Aug 3 at 9:59


























      answered Aug 3 at 9:47









      gimusi

      63.7k73480




      63.7k73480







      • 1




        Why doesn't $|e^iz|=1$?
        – Bell
        Aug 3 at 9:52






      • 1




        @Bell Opsss...yes of course $|e^iz|=1$
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 9:59






      • 1




        @Bell Yes of course bot inequalities are true and indeed $$(age b) land (ale b) iff a=b$$
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:32






      • 1




        @Bell Yes exactly!
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:40






      • 1




        @Bell You are welcome! It's really a plesure can be useful to you and I also learn a lot dealing with your questions here. Bye
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:47












      • 1




        Why doesn't $|e^iz|=1$?
        – Bell
        Aug 3 at 9:52






      • 1




        @Bell Opsss...yes of course $|e^iz|=1$
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 9:59






      • 1




        @Bell Yes of course bot inequalities are true and indeed $$(age b) land (ale b) iff a=b$$
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:32






      • 1




        @Bell Yes exactly!
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:40






      • 1




        @Bell You are welcome! It's really a plesure can be useful to you and I also learn a lot dealing with your questions here. Bye
        – gimusi
        Aug 3 at 13:47







      1




      1




      Why doesn't $|e^iz|=1$?
      – Bell
      Aug 3 at 9:52




      Why doesn't $|e^iz|=1$?
      – Bell
      Aug 3 at 9:52




      1




      1




      @Bell Opsss...yes of course $|e^iz|=1$
      – gimusi
      Aug 3 at 9:59




      @Bell Opsss...yes of course $|e^iz|=1$
      – gimusi
      Aug 3 at 9:59




      1




      1




      @Bell Yes of course bot inequalities are true and indeed $$(age b) land (ale b) iff a=b$$
      – gimusi
      Aug 3 at 13:32




      @Bell Yes of course bot inequalities are true and indeed $$(age b) land (ale b) iff a=b$$
      – gimusi
      Aug 3 at 13:32




      1




      1




      @Bell Yes exactly!
      – gimusi
      Aug 3 at 13:40




      @Bell Yes exactly!
      – gimusi
      Aug 3 at 13:40




      1




      1




      @Bell You are welcome! It's really a plesure can be useful to you and I also learn a lot dealing with your questions here. Bye
      – gimusi
      Aug 3 at 13:47




      @Bell You are welcome! It's really a plesure can be useful to you and I also learn a lot dealing with your questions here. Bye
      – gimusi
      Aug 3 at 13:47










      up vote
      2
      down vote













      For real $z$ we have $|z|^2=z^2$ and $|e^iz|$=1, hence



      $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        2
        down vote













        For real $z$ we have $|z|^2=z^2$ and $|e^iz|$=1, hence



        $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          2
          down vote










          up vote
          2
          down vote









          For real $z$ we have $|z|^2=z^2$ and $|e^iz|$=1, hence



          $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$






          share|cite|improve this answer













          For real $z$ we have $|z|^2=z^2$ and $|e^iz|$=1, hence



          $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Aug 3 at 9:43









          Fred

          37k1237




          37k1237




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              If $z$ is real: $|e^iz|=1$, $|z^2+1|=z^2+1=|z|^2+1$, so that
              $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$



              If $z=x+iy$ is complex, with $y$ a large negative number, then $|e^iz|
              =e^-y$ is huge, and so
              $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|ggfrac1z.$$






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • So in terms of the actual inequality in the question, is this possible to obtain? Or is it a strict equality?
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 9:53










              • The inequality in the question is true for real $z$, since for real $z$ both sides are equal. It fails for complex $z$; the reverse inequality fails too.
                – Lord Shark the Unknown
                Aug 3 at 9:55










              • I agree that the $left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z$, but I don't understand why $left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$ for real $z$.
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 9:58











              • @Bell If $a=b$ then $ale b$.
                – Lord Shark the Unknown
                Aug 3 at 10:00










              • I'm a bit embarrassed to say that I don't remember this result. Do you know of a link that may explain it in greater depth? I don't really understand it.
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 10:02














              up vote
              2
              down vote













              If $z$ is real: $|e^iz|=1$, $|z^2+1|=z^2+1=|z|^2+1$, so that
              $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$



              If $z=x+iy$ is complex, with $y$ a large negative number, then $|e^iz|
              =e^-y$ is huge, and so
              $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|ggfrac1z.$$






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • So in terms of the actual inequality in the question, is this possible to obtain? Or is it a strict equality?
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 9:53










              • The inequality in the question is true for real $z$, since for real $z$ both sides are equal. It fails for complex $z$; the reverse inequality fails too.
                – Lord Shark the Unknown
                Aug 3 at 9:55










              • I agree that the $left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z$, but I don't understand why $left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$ for real $z$.
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 9:58











              • @Bell If $a=b$ then $ale b$.
                – Lord Shark the Unknown
                Aug 3 at 10:00










              • I'm a bit embarrassed to say that I don't remember this result. Do you know of a link that may explain it in greater depth? I don't really understand it.
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 10:02












              up vote
              2
              down vote










              up vote
              2
              down vote









              If $z$ is real: $|e^iz|=1$, $|z^2+1|=z^2+1=|z|^2+1$, so that
              $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$



              If $z=x+iy$ is complex, with $y$ a large negative number, then $|e^iz|
              =e^-y$ is huge, and so
              $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|ggfrac1z.$$






              share|cite|improve this answer













              If $z$ is real: $|e^iz|=1$, $|z^2+1|=z^2+1=|z|^2+1$, so that
              $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z.$$



              If $z=x+iy$ is complex, with $y$ a large negative number, then $|e^iz|
              =e^-y$ is huge, and so
              $$left|frace^izz^2+1right|ggfrac1z.$$







              share|cite|improve this answer













              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer











              answered Aug 3 at 9:45









              Lord Shark the Unknown

              84.1k950111




              84.1k950111











              • So in terms of the actual inequality in the question, is this possible to obtain? Or is it a strict equality?
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 9:53










              • The inequality in the question is true for real $z$, since for real $z$ both sides are equal. It fails for complex $z$; the reverse inequality fails too.
                – Lord Shark the Unknown
                Aug 3 at 9:55










              • I agree that the $left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z$, but I don't understand why $left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$ for real $z$.
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 9:58











              • @Bell If $a=b$ then $ale b$.
                – Lord Shark the Unknown
                Aug 3 at 10:00










              • I'm a bit embarrassed to say that I don't remember this result. Do you know of a link that may explain it in greater depth? I don't really understand it.
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 10:02
















              • So in terms of the actual inequality in the question, is this possible to obtain? Or is it a strict equality?
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 9:53










              • The inequality in the question is true for real $z$, since for real $z$ both sides are equal. It fails for complex $z$; the reverse inequality fails too.
                – Lord Shark the Unknown
                Aug 3 at 9:55










              • I agree that the $left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z$, but I don't understand why $left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$ for real $z$.
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 9:58











              • @Bell If $a=b$ then $ale b$.
                – Lord Shark the Unknown
                Aug 3 at 10:00










              • I'm a bit embarrassed to say that I don't remember this result. Do you know of a link that may explain it in greater depth? I don't really understand it.
                – Bell
                Aug 3 at 10:02















              So in terms of the actual inequality in the question, is this possible to obtain? Or is it a strict equality?
              – Bell
              Aug 3 at 9:53




              So in terms of the actual inequality in the question, is this possible to obtain? Or is it a strict equality?
              – Bell
              Aug 3 at 9:53












              The inequality in the question is true for real $z$, since for real $z$ both sides are equal. It fails for complex $z$; the reverse inequality fails too.
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              Aug 3 at 9:55




              The inequality in the question is true for real $z$, since for real $z$ both sides are equal. It fails for complex $z$; the reverse inequality fails too.
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              Aug 3 at 9:55












              I agree that the $left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z$, but I don't understand why $left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$ for real $z$.
              – Bell
              Aug 3 at 9:58





              I agree that the $left|frace^izz^2+1right|=frac1z$, but I don't understand why $left|frace^izz^2+1right|leqfrac1z$ for real $z$.
              – Bell
              Aug 3 at 9:58













              @Bell If $a=b$ then $ale b$.
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              Aug 3 at 10:00




              @Bell If $a=b$ then $ale b$.
              – Lord Shark the Unknown
              Aug 3 at 10:00












              I'm a bit embarrassed to say that I don't remember this result. Do you know of a link that may explain it in greater depth? I don't really understand it.
              – Bell
              Aug 3 at 10:02




              I'm a bit embarrassed to say that I don't remember this result. Do you know of a link that may explain it in greater depth? I don't really understand it.
              – Bell
              Aug 3 at 10:02










              up vote
              1
              down vote













              $geq $ and $leq$ don't contradict each other! When $z$ is real $|z^2+1|=|z|^2+1$. This proves that the stated inequality is actually an equlity for real $z$. To see that the inequality may not hold for complex $z$ take $z=e^-in$ where $n$ is a large positive integer.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                1
                down vote













                $geq $ and $leq$ don't contradict each other! When $z$ is real $|z^2+1|=|z|^2+1$. This proves that the stated inequality is actually an equlity for real $z$. To see that the inequality may not hold for complex $z$ take $z=e^-in$ where $n$ is a large positive integer.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  1
                  down vote









                  $geq $ and $leq$ don't contradict each other! When $z$ is real $|z^2+1|=|z|^2+1$. This proves that the stated inequality is actually an equlity for real $z$. To see that the inequality may not hold for complex $z$ take $z=e^-in$ where $n$ is a large positive integer.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  $geq $ and $leq$ don't contradict each other! When $z$ is real $|z^2+1|=|z|^2+1$. This proves that the stated inequality is actually an equlity for real $z$. To see that the inequality may not hold for complex $z$ take $z=e^-in$ where $n$ is a large positive integer.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Aug 3 at 9:43









                  Kavi Rama Murthy

                  19.2k2829




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