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What is this divisibility pattern called?
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Say I take the primes up to $P$, then there is a pattern of numbers that are divisible by those primes which is periodic every $kcdot P#$. What is this called, and is it symmetrical?
Also, since overlapping the prime elimination pattern with a translation of itself by +2 yields primes $n$ where $n-2$ is prime, why does the fact that no elimination pattern exists where this overlay creates a repeating pattern of sequential eliminations (i.e. there is no way for a repeating pattern to eliminate all $n$ after some point), not prove the infinitude of $n$?
elementary-number-theory prime-numbers terminology
edited Aug 3 at 11:37
joriki
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asked Aug 3 at 0:14
Daniel Castle
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reputation from Daniel Castle ending ending at 2018-08-12 15:28:41Z">in 5 days.
Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.
add a comment |Â
up vote
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Say I take the primes up to $P$, then there is a pattern of numbers that are divisible by those primes which is periodic every $kcdot P#$. What is this called, and is it symmetrical?
Also, since overlapping the prime elimination pattern with a translation of itself by +2 yields primes $n$ where $n-2$ is prime, why does the fact that no elimination pattern exists where this overlay creates a repeating pattern of sequential eliminations (i.e. there is no way for a repeating pattern to eliminate all $n$ after some point), not prove the infinitude of $n$?
elementary-number-theory prime-numbers terminology
edited Aug 3 at 11:37
joriki
164k10179328
asked Aug 3 at 0:14
Daniel Castle
366315
This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from Daniel Castle ending ending at 2018-08-12 15:28:41Z">in 5 days.
Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.
Yes, it's symmetric, since $P#-n$ has the same divisors as $n$.
– joriki
Aug 3 at 11:39
add a comment |Â
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Say I take the primes up to $P$, then there is a pattern of numbers that are divisible by those primes which is periodic every $kcdot P#$. What is this called, and is it symmetrical?
Also, since overlapping the prime elimination pattern with a translation of itself by +2 yields primes $n$ where $n-2$ is prime, why does the fact that no elimination pattern exists where this overlay creates a repeating pattern of sequential eliminations (i.e. there is no way for a repeating pattern to eliminate all $n$ after some point), not prove the infinitude of $n$?
elementary-number-theory prime-numbers terminology
edited Aug 3 at 11:37
joriki
164k10179328
asked Aug 3 at 0:14
Daniel Castle
366315
Say I take the primes up to $P$, then there is a pattern of numbers that are divisible by those primes which is periodic every $kcdot P#$. What is this called, and is it symmetrical?
Also, since overlapping the prime elimination pattern with a translation of itself by +2 yields primes $n$ where $n-2$ is prime, why does the fact that no elimination pattern exists where this overlay creates a repeating pattern of sequential eliminations (i.e. there is no way for a repeating pattern to eliminate all $n$ after some point), not prove the infinitude of $n$?
elementary-number-theory prime-numbers terminology
edited Aug 3 at 11:37
joriki
164k10179328
asked Aug 3 at 0:14
Daniel Castle
366315
edited Aug 3 at 11:37
joriki
164k10179328
edited Aug 3 at 11:37
joriki
164k10179328
edited Aug 3 at 11:37
joriki
164k10179328
164k10179328
asked Aug 3 at 0:14
Daniel Castle
366315
asked Aug 3 at 0:14
Daniel Castle
366315
asked Aug 3 at 0:14
Daniel Castle
366315
366315
This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from Daniel Castle ending ending at 2018-08-12 15:28:41Z">in 5 days.
Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.
This question has an open bounty worth +50
reputation from Daniel Castle ending ending at 2018-08-12 15:28:41Z">in 5 days.
Looking for an answer drawing from credible and/or official sources.
Yes, it's symmetric, since $P#-n$ has the same divisors as $n$.
– joriki
Aug 3 at 11:39
add a comment |Â
Yes, it's symmetric, since $P#-n$ has the same divisors as $n$.
– joriki
Aug 3 at 11:39
Yes, it's symmetric, since $P#-n$ has the same divisors as $n$.
– joriki
Aug 3 at 11:39
Yes, it's symmetric, since $P#-n$ has the same divisors as $n$.
– joriki
Aug 3 at 11:39
add a comment |Â
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Yes, it's symmetric, since $P#-n$ has the same divisors as $n$.
– joriki
Aug 3 at 11:39