Why do we use determinant $det A$ to specify linearly dependence? [on hold]

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Why this works? And does it effect the determinant test(dependence test) writing place the coordinant to the matrix that we are taking determinant of?







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    See: math.stackexchange.com/questions/79356/…
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  • How can one explain this idea to a high school student
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    @saulspatz: They are negative in some sense. Certainly not an attack, but they carry negative sentiment, generally without explaining why. Thankfully MSE is not quite as judgmental as, say SO.
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up vote
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Why this works? And does it effect the determinant test(dependence test) writing place the coordinant to the matrix that we are taking determinant of?







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put on hold as off-topic by TheGeekGreek, John Ma, Isaac Browne, Adrian Keister, Leucippus Aug 3 at 0:04


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – TheGeekGreek, John Ma, Isaac Browne, Adrian Keister, Leucippus
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.








  • 1




    See: math.stackexchange.com/questions/79356/…
    – Moo
    Aug 2 at 16:44










  • How can one explain this idea to a high school student
    – Jale'de jale uff ne jale
    Aug 2 at 16:44










  • wow why - votes?
    – Jale'de jale uff ne jale
    Aug 2 at 16:48






  • 3




    Downvotes are not a personal attack.
    – saulspatz
    Aug 2 at 16:59






  • 1




    @saulspatz: They are negative in some sense. Certainly not an attack, but they carry negative sentiment, generally without explaining why. Thankfully MSE is not quite as judgmental as, say SO.
    – copper.hat
    Aug 2 at 17:52












up vote
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down vote

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up vote
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down vote

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1





Why this works? And does it effect the determinant test(dependence test) writing place the coordinant to the matrix that we are taking determinant of?







share|cite|improve this question













Why this works? And does it effect the determinant test(dependence test) writing place the coordinant to the matrix that we are taking determinant of?









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 2 at 17:52









copper.hat

122k557155




122k557155









asked Aug 2 at 16:41









Jale'de jale uff ne jale

203




203




put on hold as off-topic by TheGeekGreek, John Ma, Isaac Browne, Adrian Keister, Leucippus Aug 3 at 0:04


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – TheGeekGreek, John Ma, Isaac Browne, Adrian Keister, Leucippus
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.




put on hold as off-topic by TheGeekGreek, John Ma, Isaac Browne, Adrian Keister, Leucippus Aug 3 at 0:04


This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:


  • "This question is missing context or other details: Please improve the question by providing additional context, which ideally includes your thoughts on the problem and any attempts you have made to solve it. This information helps others identify where you have difficulties and helps them write answers appropriate to your experience level." – TheGeekGreek, John Ma, Isaac Browne, Adrian Keister, Leucippus
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.







  • 1




    See: math.stackexchange.com/questions/79356/…
    – Moo
    Aug 2 at 16:44










  • How can one explain this idea to a high school student
    – Jale'de jale uff ne jale
    Aug 2 at 16:44










  • wow why - votes?
    – Jale'de jale uff ne jale
    Aug 2 at 16:48






  • 3




    Downvotes are not a personal attack.
    – saulspatz
    Aug 2 at 16:59






  • 1




    @saulspatz: They are negative in some sense. Certainly not an attack, but they carry negative sentiment, generally without explaining why. Thankfully MSE is not quite as judgmental as, say SO.
    – copper.hat
    Aug 2 at 17:52












  • 1




    See: math.stackexchange.com/questions/79356/…
    – Moo
    Aug 2 at 16:44










  • How can one explain this idea to a high school student
    – Jale'de jale uff ne jale
    Aug 2 at 16:44










  • wow why - votes?
    – Jale'de jale uff ne jale
    Aug 2 at 16:48






  • 3




    Downvotes are not a personal attack.
    – saulspatz
    Aug 2 at 16:59






  • 1




    @saulspatz: They are negative in some sense. Certainly not an attack, but they carry negative sentiment, generally without explaining why. Thankfully MSE is not quite as judgmental as, say SO.
    – copper.hat
    Aug 2 at 17:52







1




1




See: math.stackexchange.com/questions/79356/…
– Moo
Aug 2 at 16:44




See: math.stackexchange.com/questions/79356/…
– Moo
Aug 2 at 16:44












How can one explain this idea to a high school student
– Jale'de jale uff ne jale
Aug 2 at 16:44




How can one explain this idea to a high school student
– Jale'de jale uff ne jale
Aug 2 at 16:44












wow why - votes?
– Jale'de jale uff ne jale
Aug 2 at 16:48




wow why - votes?
– Jale'de jale uff ne jale
Aug 2 at 16:48




3




3




Downvotes are not a personal attack.
– saulspatz
Aug 2 at 16:59




Downvotes are not a personal attack.
– saulspatz
Aug 2 at 16:59




1




1




@saulspatz: They are negative in some sense. Certainly not an attack, but they carry negative sentiment, generally without explaining why. Thankfully MSE is not quite as judgmental as, say SO.
– copper.hat
Aug 2 at 17:52




@saulspatz: They are negative in some sense. Certainly not an attack, but they carry negative sentiment, generally without explaining why. Thankfully MSE is not quite as judgmental as, say SO.
– copper.hat
Aug 2 at 17:52










1 Answer
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If you view $det$ as a function of the columns, it is linear in each column separately. Let me write $det A = d(a_1,...,a_n)$.
If two of the $a_k$ are the same, then
$d(...,a_k,...,a_k,...) = 0$.



Suppose, to be concrete, the last column can be written as a linear combination of the others, $a_n = sum_k<n lambda_k a_k$.



Then by linearity in the last column we have $d(a_1,...,a_n) = sum_k<n lambda_k d(a_1,...,a_k)$ and since each element of the sum repeats one column
we have $d(a_1,...,a_k)=0$ and so $d(a_1,...,a_n) = 0$.



Hence if the columns are linearly dependent, we have $det A = 0$.



Now suppose that you know that the columns $a_k$ are linearly independent. My
proof here is not as satisfactory as it relies on Gaussian elimination and the
fact that $det (AB) = det A det B$.



By post multiplying $A$ by appropriate matrices (elementary column operations, whose determinants are
non zero) we can obtain a column echelon form, that is, we can reduce $A$ to
an upper triangular form $T$ whose diagonal elements are all non zero. That is,
$A C_1cdots C_p = T$. Since $det C_k neq 0$ and $det T neq 0$ we see that $det A = det T det C_1 cdots det C_p neq 0$.



Hence $det A neq 0$ iff the columns are linearly independent.






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    1 Answer
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    1 Answer
    1






    active

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    active

    oldest

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    active

    oldest

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    up vote
    1
    down vote













    If you view $det$ as a function of the columns, it is linear in each column separately. Let me write $det A = d(a_1,...,a_n)$.
    If two of the $a_k$ are the same, then
    $d(...,a_k,...,a_k,...) = 0$.



    Suppose, to be concrete, the last column can be written as a linear combination of the others, $a_n = sum_k<n lambda_k a_k$.



    Then by linearity in the last column we have $d(a_1,...,a_n) = sum_k<n lambda_k d(a_1,...,a_k)$ and since each element of the sum repeats one column
    we have $d(a_1,...,a_k)=0$ and so $d(a_1,...,a_n) = 0$.



    Hence if the columns are linearly dependent, we have $det A = 0$.



    Now suppose that you know that the columns $a_k$ are linearly independent. My
    proof here is not as satisfactory as it relies on Gaussian elimination and the
    fact that $det (AB) = det A det B$.



    By post multiplying $A$ by appropriate matrices (elementary column operations, whose determinants are
    non zero) we can obtain a column echelon form, that is, we can reduce $A$ to
    an upper triangular form $T$ whose diagonal elements are all non zero. That is,
    $A C_1cdots C_p = T$. Since $det C_k neq 0$ and $det T neq 0$ we see that $det A = det T det C_1 cdots det C_p neq 0$.



    Hence $det A neq 0$ iff the columns are linearly independent.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      If you view $det$ as a function of the columns, it is linear in each column separately. Let me write $det A = d(a_1,...,a_n)$.
      If two of the $a_k$ are the same, then
      $d(...,a_k,...,a_k,...) = 0$.



      Suppose, to be concrete, the last column can be written as a linear combination of the others, $a_n = sum_k<n lambda_k a_k$.



      Then by linearity in the last column we have $d(a_1,...,a_n) = sum_k<n lambda_k d(a_1,...,a_k)$ and since each element of the sum repeats one column
      we have $d(a_1,...,a_k)=0$ and so $d(a_1,...,a_n) = 0$.



      Hence if the columns are linearly dependent, we have $det A = 0$.



      Now suppose that you know that the columns $a_k$ are linearly independent. My
      proof here is not as satisfactory as it relies on Gaussian elimination and the
      fact that $det (AB) = det A det B$.



      By post multiplying $A$ by appropriate matrices (elementary column operations, whose determinants are
      non zero) we can obtain a column echelon form, that is, we can reduce $A$ to
      an upper triangular form $T$ whose diagonal elements are all non zero. That is,
      $A C_1cdots C_p = T$. Since $det C_k neq 0$ and $det T neq 0$ we see that $det A = det T det C_1 cdots det C_p neq 0$.



      Hence $det A neq 0$ iff the columns are linearly independent.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        If you view $det$ as a function of the columns, it is linear in each column separately. Let me write $det A = d(a_1,...,a_n)$.
        If two of the $a_k$ are the same, then
        $d(...,a_k,...,a_k,...) = 0$.



        Suppose, to be concrete, the last column can be written as a linear combination of the others, $a_n = sum_k<n lambda_k a_k$.



        Then by linearity in the last column we have $d(a_1,...,a_n) = sum_k<n lambda_k d(a_1,...,a_k)$ and since each element of the sum repeats one column
        we have $d(a_1,...,a_k)=0$ and so $d(a_1,...,a_n) = 0$.



        Hence if the columns are linearly dependent, we have $det A = 0$.



        Now suppose that you know that the columns $a_k$ are linearly independent. My
        proof here is not as satisfactory as it relies on Gaussian elimination and the
        fact that $det (AB) = det A det B$.



        By post multiplying $A$ by appropriate matrices (elementary column operations, whose determinants are
        non zero) we can obtain a column echelon form, that is, we can reduce $A$ to
        an upper triangular form $T$ whose diagonal elements are all non zero. That is,
        $A C_1cdots C_p = T$. Since $det C_k neq 0$ and $det T neq 0$ we see that $det A = det T det C_1 cdots det C_p neq 0$.



        Hence $det A neq 0$ iff the columns are linearly independent.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        If you view $det$ as a function of the columns, it is linear in each column separately. Let me write $det A = d(a_1,...,a_n)$.
        If two of the $a_k$ are the same, then
        $d(...,a_k,...,a_k,...) = 0$.



        Suppose, to be concrete, the last column can be written as a linear combination of the others, $a_n = sum_k<n lambda_k a_k$.



        Then by linearity in the last column we have $d(a_1,...,a_n) = sum_k<n lambda_k d(a_1,...,a_k)$ and since each element of the sum repeats one column
        we have $d(a_1,...,a_k)=0$ and so $d(a_1,...,a_n) = 0$.



        Hence if the columns are linearly dependent, we have $det A = 0$.



        Now suppose that you know that the columns $a_k$ are linearly independent. My
        proof here is not as satisfactory as it relies on Gaussian elimination and the
        fact that $det (AB) = det A det B$.



        By post multiplying $A$ by appropriate matrices (elementary column operations, whose determinants are
        non zero) we can obtain a column echelon form, that is, we can reduce $A$ to
        an upper triangular form $T$ whose diagonal elements are all non zero. That is,
        $A C_1cdots C_p = T$. Since $det C_k neq 0$ and $det T neq 0$ we see that $det A = det T det C_1 cdots det C_p neq 0$.



        Hence $det A neq 0$ iff the columns are linearly independent.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Aug 2 at 18:27









        copper.hat

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        122k557155












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