A better lower bound of the definite integral $int_0^1fracln^2xe^2x,dx$

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In this post of my blog, I proved that $$int_0^1frac(x^2-3x+1)ln xe^x,dx=-frac1e.$$ Now if we apply the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for integrals, we get $$frac1e^2leint_0^1(x^2-3x+1)^2,dxint_0^1fracln^2xe^2x,dx.$$ The first integral is easy to evaluate, so we arrive at $$int_0^1fracln^2xe^2x,dxgefrac3011e^2approx0.36909cdots$$ If I plug the integral into WA, the actual value is $2,_3F_3(1,1,1;2,2,2;-2)approx1.61511$ which involves hypergeometric functions. We can see that my approximation is not very useful.




So could a closer lower bound be found using 'simple' methods (e.g. not requiring the use of hypergeometric or gamma functions)?




P.S. An analytical method would be best.







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    In this post of my blog, I proved that $$int_0^1frac(x^2-3x+1)ln xe^x,dx=-frac1e.$$ Now if we apply the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for integrals, we get $$frac1e^2leint_0^1(x^2-3x+1)^2,dxint_0^1fracln^2xe^2x,dx.$$ The first integral is easy to evaluate, so we arrive at $$int_0^1fracln^2xe^2x,dxgefrac3011e^2approx0.36909cdots$$ If I plug the integral into WA, the actual value is $2,_3F_3(1,1,1;2,2,2;-2)approx1.61511$ which involves hypergeometric functions. We can see that my approximation is not very useful.




    So could a closer lower bound be found using 'simple' methods (e.g. not requiring the use of hypergeometric or gamma functions)?




    P.S. An analytical method would be best.







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      3
      down vote

      favorite











      In this post of my blog, I proved that $$int_0^1frac(x^2-3x+1)ln xe^x,dx=-frac1e.$$ Now if we apply the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for integrals, we get $$frac1e^2leint_0^1(x^2-3x+1)^2,dxint_0^1fracln^2xe^2x,dx.$$ The first integral is easy to evaluate, so we arrive at $$int_0^1fracln^2xe^2x,dxgefrac3011e^2approx0.36909cdots$$ If I plug the integral into WA, the actual value is $2,_3F_3(1,1,1;2,2,2;-2)approx1.61511$ which involves hypergeometric functions. We can see that my approximation is not very useful.




      So could a closer lower bound be found using 'simple' methods (e.g. not requiring the use of hypergeometric or gamma functions)?




      P.S. An analytical method would be best.







      share|cite|improve this question













      In this post of my blog, I proved that $$int_0^1frac(x^2-3x+1)ln xe^x,dx=-frac1e.$$ Now if we apply the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for integrals, we get $$frac1e^2leint_0^1(x^2-3x+1)^2,dxint_0^1fracln^2xe^2x,dx.$$ The first integral is easy to evaluate, so we arrive at $$int_0^1fracln^2xe^2x,dxgefrac3011e^2approx0.36909cdots$$ If I plug the integral into WA, the actual value is $2,_3F_3(1,1,1;2,2,2;-2)approx1.61511$ which involves hypergeometric functions. We can see that my approximation is not very useful.




      So could a closer lower bound be found using 'simple' methods (e.g. not requiring the use of hypergeometric or gamma functions)?




      P.S. An analytical method would be best.









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Jul 20 at 15:31
























      asked Jul 20 at 15:02









      TheSimpliFire

      9,67461951




      9,67461951




















          2 Answers
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          You can just truncate the exponential series at an odd index: For $n in mathbbN$ we have
          $$ I equiv int limits_0^1 ln^2(x) mathrme^-2 x , mathrmd x geq sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-2)^kk! int limits_0^1 ln^2 (x) x^k , mathrmdx = sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-1)^k 2^k+1k! (k+1)^3 equiv I_n , . $$
          Then $I_1 = frac32 = 1.5$, $I_2 = frac347216 approx 1.60648$, $I_3 = frac13078981000 approx 1.61468$ and so on.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! I should have thought of Taylor series...
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 18:53

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          It's trivial to get a better lower bound using a trivial method:



          enter image description here



          $$frac12 cdot 0.3 cdot 5 = 0.75$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • How could this be done analytically (without the aid of graphs)?
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 15:30










          • @TheSimpliFire You can show that the function is monotonic and then draw such a triangle below the tangent of the function.
            – orlp
            Jul 20 at 15:33










          Your Answer




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          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          You can just truncate the exponential series at an odd index: For $n in mathbbN$ we have
          $$ I equiv int limits_0^1 ln^2(x) mathrme^-2 x , mathrmd x geq sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-2)^kk! int limits_0^1 ln^2 (x) x^k , mathrmdx = sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-1)^k 2^k+1k! (k+1)^3 equiv I_n , . $$
          Then $I_1 = frac32 = 1.5$, $I_2 = frac347216 approx 1.60648$, $I_3 = frac13078981000 approx 1.61468$ and so on.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! I should have thought of Taylor series...
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 18:53














          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted










          You can just truncate the exponential series at an odd index: For $n in mathbbN$ we have
          $$ I equiv int limits_0^1 ln^2(x) mathrme^-2 x , mathrmd x geq sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-2)^kk! int limits_0^1 ln^2 (x) x^k , mathrmdx = sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-1)^k 2^k+1k! (k+1)^3 equiv I_n , . $$
          Then $I_1 = frac32 = 1.5$, $I_2 = frac347216 approx 1.60648$, $I_3 = frac13078981000 approx 1.61468$ and so on.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! I should have thought of Taylor series...
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 18:53












          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          3
          down vote



          accepted






          You can just truncate the exponential series at an odd index: For $n in mathbbN$ we have
          $$ I equiv int limits_0^1 ln^2(x) mathrme^-2 x , mathrmd x geq sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-2)^kk! int limits_0^1 ln^2 (x) x^k , mathrmdx = sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-1)^k 2^k+1k! (k+1)^3 equiv I_n , . $$
          Then $I_1 = frac32 = 1.5$, $I_2 = frac347216 approx 1.60648$, $I_3 = frac13078981000 approx 1.61468$ and so on.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          You can just truncate the exponential series at an odd index: For $n in mathbbN$ we have
          $$ I equiv int limits_0^1 ln^2(x) mathrme^-2 x , mathrmd x geq sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-2)^kk! int limits_0^1 ln^2 (x) x^k , mathrmdx = sum limits_k=0^2n-1 frac(-1)^k 2^k+1k! (k+1)^3 equiv I_n , . $$
          Then $I_1 = frac32 = 1.5$, $I_2 = frac347216 approx 1.60648$, $I_3 = frac13078981000 approx 1.61468$ and so on.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 20 at 18:51









          ComplexYetTrivial

          2,607624




          2,607624











          • Thanks! I should have thought of Taylor series...
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 18:53
















          • Thanks! I should have thought of Taylor series...
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 18:53















          Thanks! I should have thought of Taylor series...
          – TheSimpliFire
          Jul 20 at 18:53




          Thanks! I should have thought of Taylor series...
          – TheSimpliFire
          Jul 20 at 18:53










          up vote
          0
          down vote













          It's trivial to get a better lower bound using a trivial method:



          enter image description here



          $$frac12 cdot 0.3 cdot 5 = 0.75$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • How could this be done analytically (without the aid of graphs)?
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 15:30










          • @TheSimpliFire You can show that the function is monotonic and then draw such a triangle below the tangent of the function.
            – orlp
            Jul 20 at 15:33














          up vote
          0
          down vote













          It's trivial to get a better lower bound using a trivial method:



          enter image description here



          $$frac12 cdot 0.3 cdot 5 = 0.75$$






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • How could this be done analytically (without the aid of graphs)?
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 15:30










          • @TheSimpliFire You can show that the function is monotonic and then draw such a triangle below the tangent of the function.
            – orlp
            Jul 20 at 15:33












          up vote
          0
          down vote










          up vote
          0
          down vote









          It's trivial to get a better lower bound using a trivial method:



          enter image description here



          $$frac12 cdot 0.3 cdot 5 = 0.75$$






          share|cite|improve this answer













          It's trivial to get a better lower bound using a trivial method:



          enter image description here



          $$frac12 cdot 0.3 cdot 5 = 0.75$$







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Jul 20 at 15:15









          orlp

          6,6051228




          6,6051228











          • How could this be done analytically (without the aid of graphs)?
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 15:30










          • @TheSimpliFire You can show that the function is monotonic and then draw such a triangle below the tangent of the function.
            – orlp
            Jul 20 at 15:33
















          • How could this be done analytically (without the aid of graphs)?
            – TheSimpliFire
            Jul 20 at 15:30










          • @TheSimpliFire You can show that the function is monotonic and then draw such a triangle below the tangent of the function.
            – orlp
            Jul 20 at 15:33















          How could this be done analytically (without the aid of graphs)?
          – TheSimpliFire
          Jul 20 at 15:30




          How could this be done analytically (without the aid of graphs)?
          – TheSimpliFire
          Jul 20 at 15:30












          @TheSimpliFire You can show that the function is monotonic and then draw such a triangle below the tangent of the function.
          – orlp
          Jul 20 at 15:33




          @TheSimpliFire You can show that the function is monotonic and then draw such a triangle below the tangent of the function.
          – orlp
          Jul 20 at 15:33












           

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