Does A transpose = - A transpose?

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The question I am currently struggling with is



Does there exist an $ n×n $ real matrix$ A $ such that



$ tr(A)= 0 $ and $ A^2+A^T= I $?



For some reason, the solution starts with



$ I= A^2−A^T $



instead of $ I = A^2 + A^T $ as stated in the problem.



which leads me to think that $ A^T = -A^T $



Is this true?



The solution I am looking at is this.



https://i.stack.imgur.com/w1Q9D.png







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  • Since the solution states the matrix cannot exist, the question whether this non-existing matrix satisfies $A^T = - A^T$ is somewhat weird...
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:14










  • I expect that there was a typo in the question and they intended $I = A^2 - A^T$
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:15










  • Something else: the only matrix satisfying $-X = X$ is the null-matrix, so if $A^T = -A^T$ then $A^T= 0$ and hence $A = 0$. But then we check that $A^2 + A^T = 0$ and not $I$. In other words, from the conditions in the question it follows that $A^T$ is NOT equal to $-A^T$.
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:20










  • Thank you very much for the comments.
    – user449415
    Jul 21 at 3:10














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












The question I am currently struggling with is



Does there exist an $ n×n $ real matrix$ A $ such that



$ tr(A)= 0 $ and $ A^2+A^T= I $?



For some reason, the solution starts with



$ I= A^2−A^T $



instead of $ I = A^2 + A^T $ as stated in the problem.



which leads me to think that $ A^T = -A^T $



Is this true?



The solution I am looking at is this.



https://i.stack.imgur.com/w1Q9D.png







share|cite|improve this question





















  • Since the solution states the matrix cannot exist, the question whether this non-existing matrix satisfies $A^T = - A^T$ is somewhat weird...
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:14










  • I expect that there was a typo in the question and they intended $I = A^2 - A^T$
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:15










  • Something else: the only matrix satisfying $-X = X$ is the null-matrix, so if $A^T = -A^T$ then $A^T= 0$ and hence $A = 0$. But then we check that $A^2 + A^T = 0$ and not $I$. In other words, from the conditions in the question it follows that $A^T$ is NOT equal to $-A^T$.
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:20










  • Thank you very much for the comments.
    – user449415
    Jul 21 at 3:10












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











The question I am currently struggling with is



Does there exist an $ n×n $ real matrix$ A $ such that



$ tr(A)= 0 $ and $ A^2+A^T= I $?



For some reason, the solution starts with



$ I= A^2−A^T $



instead of $ I = A^2 + A^T $ as stated in the problem.



which leads me to think that $ A^T = -A^T $



Is this true?



The solution I am looking at is this.



https://i.stack.imgur.com/w1Q9D.png







share|cite|improve this question













The question I am currently struggling with is



Does there exist an $ n×n $ real matrix$ A $ such that



$ tr(A)= 0 $ and $ A^2+A^T= I $?



For some reason, the solution starts with



$ I= A^2−A^T $



instead of $ I = A^2 + A^T $ as stated in the problem.



which leads me to think that $ A^T = -A^T $



Is this true?



The solution I am looking at is this.



https://i.stack.imgur.com/w1Q9D.png









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Jul 20 at 11:09
























asked Jul 20 at 10:52







user449415


















  • Since the solution states the matrix cannot exist, the question whether this non-existing matrix satisfies $A^T = - A^T$ is somewhat weird...
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:14










  • I expect that there was a typo in the question and they intended $I = A^2 - A^T$
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:15










  • Something else: the only matrix satisfying $-X = X$ is the null-matrix, so if $A^T = -A^T$ then $A^T= 0$ and hence $A = 0$. But then we check that $A^2 + A^T = 0$ and not $I$. In other words, from the conditions in the question it follows that $A^T$ is NOT equal to $-A^T$.
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:20










  • Thank you very much for the comments.
    – user449415
    Jul 21 at 3:10
















  • Since the solution states the matrix cannot exist, the question whether this non-existing matrix satisfies $A^T = - A^T$ is somewhat weird...
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:14










  • I expect that there was a typo in the question and they intended $I = A^2 - A^T$
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:15










  • Something else: the only matrix satisfying $-X = X$ is the null-matrix, so if $A^T = -A^T$ then $A^T= 0$ and hence $A = 0$. But then we check that $A^2 + A^T = 0$ and not $I$. In other words, from the conditions in the question it follows that $A^T$ is NOT equal to $-A^T$.
    – Vincent
    Jul 20 at 11:20










  • Thank you very much for the comments.
    – user449415
    Jul 21 at 3:10















Since the solution states the matrix cannot exist, the question whether this non-existing matrix satisfies $A^T = - A^T$ is somewhat weird...
– Vincent
Jul 20 at 11:14




Since the solution states the matrix cannot exist, the question whether this non-existing matrix satisfies $A^T = - A^T$ is somewhat weird...
– Vincent
Jul 20 at 11:14












I expect that there was a typo in the question and they intended $I = A^2 - A^T$
– Vincent
Jul 20 at 11:15




I expect that there was a typo in the question and they intended $I = A^2 - A^T$
– Vincent
Jul 20 at 11:15












Something else: the only matrix satisfying $-X = X$ is the null-matrix, so if $A^T = -A^T$ then $A^T= 0$ and hence $A = 0$. But then we check that $A^2 + A^T = 0$ and not $I$. In other words, from the conditions in the question it follows that $A^T$ is NOT equal to $-A^T$.
– Vincent
Jul 20 at 11:20




Something else: the only matrix satisfying $-X = X$ is the null-matrix, so if $A^T = -A^T$ then $A^T= 0$ and hence $A = 0$. But then we check that $A^2 + A^T = 0$ and not $I$. In other words, from the conditions in the question it follows that $A^T$ is NOT equal to $-A^T$.
– Vincent
Jul 20 at 11:20












Thank you very much for the comments.
– user449415
Jul 21 at 3:10




Thank you very much for the comments.
– user449415
Jul 21 at 3:10










1 Answer
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up vote
2
down vote













Well, no, that is a mistake from the solution makers. However, if you use $I=A^2+A^top$ where they write $I=A^2-A^top$, the argument doesn't change that much.



Edit: if the question makers intended to write $I=A^2 - A^top$, then note that for any solution $A$, we could define $B=-A$ and we would get $I=B^2 + B^top$. The other way around works as well. Thus, it doesn't matter what the exact sign is, the problems are equivalent, and the argument is similar.






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  • Thank you for your answer !
    – user449415
    Jul 21 at 3:10










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
2
down vote













Well, no, that is a mistake from the solution makers. However, if you use $I=A^2+A^top$ where they write $I=A^2-A^top$, the argument doesn't change that much.



Edit: if the question makers intended to write $I=A^2 - A^top$, then note that for any solution $A$, we could define $B=-A$ and we would get $I=B^2 + B^top$. The other way around works as well. Thus, it doesn't matter what the exact sign is, the problems are equivalent, and the argument is similar.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thank you for your answer !
    – user449415
    Jul 21 at 3:10














up vote
2
down vote













Well, no, that is a mistake from the solution makers. However, if you use $I=A^2+A^top$ where they write $I=A^2-A^top$, the argument doesn't change that much.



Edit: if the question makers intended to write $I=A^2 - A^top$, then note that for any solution $A$, we could define $B=-A$ and we would get $I=B^2 + B^top$. The other way around works as well. Thus, it doesn't matter what the exact sign is, the problems are equivalent, and the argument is similar.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Thank you for your answer !
    – user449415
    Jul 21 at 3:10












up vote
2
down vote










up vote
2
down vote









Well, no, that is a mistake from the solution makers. However, if you use $I=A^2+A^top$ where they write $I=A^2-A^top$, the argument doesn't change that much.



Edit: if the question makers intended to write $I=A^2 - A^top$, then note that for any solution $A$, we could define $B=-A$ and we would get $I=B^2 + B^top$. The other way around works as well. Thus, it doesn't matter what the exact sign is, the problems are equivalent, and the argument is similar.






share|cite|improve this answer















Well, no, that is a mistake from the solution makers. However, if you use $I=A^2+A^top$ where they write $I=A^2-A^top$, the argument doesn't change that much.



Edit: if the question makers intended to write $I=A^2 - A^top$, then note that for any solution $A$, we could define $B=-A$ and we would get $I=B^2 + B^top$. The other way around works as well. Thus, it doesn't matter what the exact sign is, the problems are equivalent, and the argument is similar.







share|cite|improve this answer















share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited Jul 20 at 11:27


























answered Jul 20 at 11:14









Stan Tendijck

1,277110




1,277110











  • Thank you for your answer !
    – user449415
    Jul 21 at 3:10
















  • Thank you for your answer !
    – user449415
    Jul 21 at 3:10















Thank you for your answer !
– user449415
Jul 21 at 3:10




Thank you for your answer !
– user449415
Jul 21 at 3:10












 

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