Showing open set

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Let $X$ be a topological space; let $A$ be a subset of $X$. Suppose that for each $x in A$ there is an open set $U$ containing $x$ such that $U subset A$. Show that $A$ is open in $X$.



I was given the following definition: A subset $U$ of $X$ is said to be open in $X$ if for each $x in U$ there is a basis element $B in mathcalB$ such that $x in B$ and $B subset U$.



So I did:



Let $x in A$. By hypothesis there is an open set $U$ containing $x$ such that $U subset A$. So since $U$ is open it follows that there is a basis element $B in mathcalB$ such that $x in B$ and $B subset U subset A$. So $A$ is open in $X$.



Could someone let me know what I did wrong? The solution in my book is the same as the answer provided here:



Let X be Topological Space ; $Asubset X$ Suppose that for each $xin A$ there is open set U contain x such that $Usubset A$.Show that A is open in X







share|cite|improve this question















  • 1




    Hm. Your proof looks essentially okay, although it looks like you haven't actually defined your basis $mathcalB$ (to be fair, $mathcalB$ is also never defined in your statement of the definition of an open set). Given your definition of an open set, the easiest correction might be to define $mathcalB = mathcalT$, where $mathcalT$ is the topology on $X$.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 17:54











  • @mheldman oh yes sorry. By $mathcalB$ I meant a basis for the topology $X$. I’ll add your correction to my answer then. Would you be willing to compare/contrast my answer to the answer in the link I posted? I’ve been googling this question and all answers are essentially the same as the answer in that link. Why do they reach the conclusion that $A$ is a union of open sets?
    – funmath
    Jul 20 at 18:09







  • 1




    Yeah, I assumed you meant that. I think your answer is okay, but the easiest thing would just be to note that $mathcalT$ is a basis for the topology, and since every $xin A$ is contained in some $Uin mathcalT$ where $Usubseteq A$, $A$ is open. It's fine to pick an arbitrary basis (as long as you prove that a basis always exists), but it's usually better to pick a specific basis.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 18:12







  • 1




    To address your confusion about the other answers, another way to show a set is open is to show that it is a union of open sets (as per the definition of a topology). If you haven't proven that $mathcalT$ is a basis for itself (which is straightforward, but adds a few extra lines), then you can avoid doing that by taking this route. Both methods are valid though.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 18:17







  • 1




    I think for a topological space $X$ it is wrong to "define" a set $U$ to be open if for each $xin U$ there is a basis element $Binmathcal B$ such that $xin Bsubseteq U$. You can only speak of a topological space $X$ if a topology $tau_Xsubseteqwp(X)$ is defined. Then a set $U$ is by definition open if $Uintau_X$. In short: to define a set to be open a basis should not be needed.
    – drhab
    Jul 20 at 18:38














up vote
2
down vote

favorite












Let $X$ be a topological space; let $A$ be a subset of $X$. Suppose that for each $x in A$ there is an open set $U$ containing $x$ such that $U subset A$. Show that $A$ is open in $X$.



I was given the following definition: A subset $U$ of $X$ is said to be open in $X$ if for each $x in U$ there is a basis element $B in mathcalB$ such that $x in B$ and $B subset U$.



So I did:



Let $x in A$. By hypothesis there is an open set $U$ containing $x$ such that $U subset A$. So since $U$ is open it follows that there is a basis element $B in mathcalB$ such that $x in B$ and $B subset U subset A$. So $A$ is open in $X$.



Could someone let me know what I did wrong? The solution in my book is the same as the answer provided here:



Let X be Topological Space ; $Asubset X$ Suppose that for each $xin A$ there is open set U contain x such that $Usubset A$.Show that A is open in X







share|cite|improve this question















  • 1




    Hm. Your proof looks essentially okay, although it looks like you haven't actually defined your basis $mathcalB$ (to be fair, $mathcalB$ is also never defined in your statement of the definition of an open set). Given your definition of an open set, the easiest correction might be to define $mathcalB = mathcalT$, where $mathcalT$ is the topology on $X$.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 17:54











  • @mheldman oh yes sorry. By $mathcalB$ I meant a basis for the topology $X$. I’ll add your correction to my answer then. Would you be willing to compare/contrast my answer to the answer in the link I posted? I’ve been googling this question and all answers are essentially the same as the answer in that link. Why do they reach the conclusion that $A$ is a union of open sets?
    – funmath
    Jul 20 at 18:09







  • 1




    Yeah, I assumed you meant that. I think your answer is okay, but the easiest thing would just be to note that $mathcalT$ is a basis for the topology, and since every $xin A$ is contained in some $Uin mathcalT$ where $Usubseteq A$, $A$ is open. It's fine to pick an arbitrary basis (as long as you prove that a basis always exists), but it's usually better to pick a specific basis.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 18:12







  • 1




    To address your confusion about the other answers, another way to show a set is open is to show that it is a union of open sets (as per the definition of a topology). If you haven't proven that $mathcalT$ is a basis for itself (which is straightforward, but adds a few extra lines), then you can avoid doing that by taking this route. Both methods are valid though.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 18:17







  • 1




    I think for a topological space $X$ it is wrong to "define" a set $U$ to be open if for each $xin U$ there is a basis element $Binmathcal B$ such that $xin Bsubseteq U$. You can only speak of a topological space $X$ if a topology $tau_Xsubseteqwp(X)$ is defined. Then a set $U$ is by definition open if $Uintau_X$. In short: to define a set to be open a basis should not be needed.
    – drhab
    Jul 20 at 18:38












up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











Let $X$ be a topological space; let $A$ be a subset of $X$. Suppose that for each $x in A$ there is an open set $U$ containing $x$ such that $U subset A$. Show that $A$ is open in $X$.



I was given the following definition: A subset $U$ of $X$ is said to be open in $X$ if for each $x in U$ there is a basis element $B in mathcalB$ such that $x in B$ and $B subset U$.



So I did:



Let $x in A$. By hypothesis there is an open set $U$ containing $x$ such that $U subset A$. So since $U$ is open it follows that there is a basis element $B in mathcalB$ such that $x in B$ and $B subset U subset A$. So $A$ is open in $X$.



Could someone let me know what I did wrong? The solution in my book is the same as the answer provided here:



Let X be Topological Space ; $Asubset X$ Suppose that for each $xin A$ there is open set U contain x such that $Usubset A$.Show that A is open in X







share|cite|improve this question











Let $X$ be a topological space; let $A$ be a subset of $X$. Suppose that for each $x in A$ there is an open set $U$ containing $x$ such that $U subset A$. Show that $A$ is open in $X$.



I was given the following definition: A subset $U$ of $X$ is said to be open in $X$ if for each $x in U$ there is a basis element $B in mathcalB$ such that $x in B$ and $B subset U$.



So I did:



Let $x in A$. By hypothesis there is an open set $U$ containing $x$ such that $U subset A$. So since $U$ is open it follows that there is a basis element $B in mathcalB$ such that $x in B$ and $B subset U subset A$. So $A$ is open in $X$.



Could someone let me know what I did wrong? The solution in my book is the same as the answer provided here:



Let X be Topological Space ; $Asubset X$ Suppose that for each $xin A$ there is open set U contain x such that $Usubset A$.Show that A is open in X









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 20 at 17:46









funmath

9918




9918







  • 1




    Hm. Your proof looks essentially okay, although it looks like you haven't actually defined your basis $mathcalB$ (to be fair, $mathcalB$ is also never defined in your statement of the definition of an open set). Given your definition of an open set, the easiest correction might be to define $mathcalB = mathcalT$, where $mathcalT$ is the topology on $X$.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 17:54











  • @mheldman oh yes sorry. By $mathcalB$ I meant a basis for the topology $X$. I’ll add your correction to my answer then. Would you be willing to compare/contrast my answer to the answer in the link I posted? I’ve been googling this question and all answers are essentially the same as the answer in that link. Why do they reach the conclusion that $A$ is a union of open sets?
    – funmath
    Jul 20 at 18:09







  • 1




    Yeah, I assumed you meant that. I think your answer is okay, but the easiest thing would just be to note that $mathcalT$ is a basis for the topology, and since every $xin A$ is contained in some $Uin mathcalT$ where $Usubseteq A$, $A$ is open. It's fine to pick an arbitrary basis (as long as you prove that a basis always exists), but it's usually better to pick a specific basis.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 18:12







  • 1




    To address your confusion about the other answers, another way to show a set is open is to show that it is a union of open sets (as per the definition of a topology). If you haven't proven that $mathcalT$ is a basis for itself (which is straightforward, but adds a few extra lines), then you can avoid doing that by taking this route. Both methods are valid though.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 18:17







  • 1




    I think for a topological space $X$ it is wrong to "define" a set $U$ to be open if for each $xin U$ there is a basis element $Binmathcal B$ such that $xin Bsubseteq U$. You can only speak of a topological space $X$ if a topology $tau_Xsubseteqwp(X)$ is defined. Then a set $U$ is by definition open if $Uintau_X$. In short: to define a set to be open a basis should not be needed.
    – drhab
    Jul 20 at 18:38












  • 1




    Hm. Your proof looks essentially okay, although it looks like you haven't actually defined your basis $mathcalB$ (to be fair, $mathcalB$ is also never defined in your statement of the definition of an open set). Given your definition of an open set, the easiest correction might be to define $mathcalB = mathcalT$, where $mathcalT$ is the topology on $X$.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 17:54











  • @mheldman oh yes sorry. By $mathcalB$ I meant a basis for the topology $X$. I’ll add your correction to my answer then. Would you be willing to compare/contrast my answer to the answer in the link I posted? I’ve been googling this question and all answers are essentially the same as the answer in that link. Why do they reach the conclusion that $A$ is a union of open sets?
    – funmath
    Jul 20 at 18:09







  • 1




    Yeah, I assumed you meant that. I think your answer is okay, but the easiest thing would just be to note that $mathcalT$ is a basis for the topology, and since every $xin A$ is contained in some $Uin mathcalT$ where $Usubseteq A$, $A$ is open. It's fine to pick an arbitrary basis (as long as you prove that a basis always exists), but it's usually better to pick a specific basis.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 18:12







  • 1




    To address your confusion about the other answers, another way to show a set is open is to show that it is a union of open sets (as per the definition of a topology). If you haven't proven that $mathcalT$ is a basis for itself (which is straightforward, but adds a few extra lines), then you can avoid doing that by taking this route. Both methods are valid though.
    –  mheldman
    Jul 20 at 18:17







  • 1




    I think for a topological space $X$ it is wrong to "define" a set $U$ to be open if for each $xin U$ there is a basis element $Binmathcal B$ such that $xin Bsubseteq U$. You can only speak of a topological space $X$ if a topology $tau_Xsubseteqwp(X)$ is defined. Then a set $U$ is by definition open if $Uintau_X$. In short: to define a set to be open a basis should not be needed.
    – drhab
    Jul 20 at 18:38







1




1




Hm. Your proof looks essentially okay, although it looks like you haven't actually defined your basis $mathcalB$ (to be fair, $mathcalB$ is also never defined in your statement of the definition of an open set). Given your definition of an open set, the easiest correction might be to define $mathcalB = mathcalT$, where $mathcalT$ is the topology on $X$.
–  mheldman
Jul 20 at 17:54





Hm. Your proof looks essentially okay, although it looks like you haven't actually defined your basis $mathcalB$ (to be fair, $mathcalB$ is also never defined in your statement of the definition of an open set). Given your definition of an open set, the easiest correction might be to define $mathcalB = mathcalT$, where $mathcalT$ is the topology on $X$.
–  mheldman
Jul 20 at 17:54













@mheldman oh yes sorry. By $mathcalB$ I meant a basis for the topology $X$. I’ll add your correction to my answer then. Would you be willing to compare/contrast my answer to the answer in the link I posted? I’ve been googling this question and all answers are essentially the same as the answer in that link. Why do they reach the conclusion that $A$ is a union of open sets?
– funmath
Jul 20 at 18:09





@mheldman oh yes sorry. By $mathcalB$ I meant a basis for the topology $X$. I’ll add your correction to my answer then. Would you be willing to compare/contrast my answer to the answer in the link I posted? I’ve been googling this question and all answers are essentially the same as the answer in that link. Why do they reach the conclusion that $A$ is a union of open sets?
– funmath
Jul 20 at 18:09





1




1




Yeah, I assumed you meant that. I think your answer is okay, but the easiest thing would just be to note that $mathcalT$ is a basis for the topology, and since every $xin A$ is contained in some $Uin mathcalT$ where $Usubseteq A$, $A$ is open. It's fine to pick an arbitrary basis (as long as you prove that a basis always exists), but it's usually better to pick a specific basis.
–  mheldman
Jul 20 at 18:12





Yeah, I assumed you meant that. I think your answer is okay, but the easiest thing would just be to note that $mathcalT$ is a basis for the topology, and since every $xin A$ is contained in some $Uin mathcalT$ where $Usubseteq A$, $A$ is open. It's fine to pick an arbitrary basis (as long as you prove that a basis always exists), but it's usually better to pick a specific basis.
–  mheldman
Jul 20 at 18:12





1




1




To address your confusion about the other answers, another way to show a set is open is to show that it is a union of open sets (as per the definition of a topology). If you haven't proven that $mathcalT$ is a basis for itself (which is straightforward, but adds a few extra lines), then you can avoid doing that by taking this route. Both methods are valid though.
–  mheldman
Jul 20 at 18:17





To address your confusion about the other answers, another way to show a set is open is to show that it is a union of open sets (as per the definition of a topology). If you haven't proven that $mathcalT$ is a basis for itself (which is straightforward, but adds a few extra lines), then you can avoid doing that by taking this route. Both methods are valid though.
–  mheldman
Jul 20 at 18:17





1




1




I think for a topological space $X$ it is wrong to "define" a set $U$ to be open if for each $xin U$ there is a basis element $Binmathcal B$ such that $xin Bsubseteq U$. You can only speak of a topological space $X$ if a topology $tau_Xsubseteqwp(X)$ is defined. Then a set $U$ is by definition open if $Uintau_X$. In short: to define a set to be open a basis should not be needed.
– drhab
Jul 20 at 18:38




I think for a topological space $X$ it is wrong to "define" a set $U$ to be open if for each $xin U$ there is a basis element $Binmathcal B$ such that $xin Bsubseteq U$. You can only speak of a topological space $X$ if a topology $tau_Xsubseteqwp(X)$ is defined. Then a set $U$ is by definition open if $Uintau_X$. In short: to define a set to be open a basis should not be needed.
– drhab
Jul 20 at 18:38










1 Answer
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I think you are given a set $X$ and a collection of subsets $mathcalB$ of $X$ satisfying certain properties.



You can then define a topology $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ on $X$ by




$O subseteq X$ is open (i.e. $O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$) iff $forall x in O: exists B_x in mathcalB: x in B_x subseteq O$




which can be shown to be a topology (i.e. obeying the 3 axioms) because $mathcalB$ was not arbitrary but obeyed the special properties.



Now we want to show the simple fact that




$O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$ iff $forall x in O: exists O_x in mathcalT(mathcalB): x in O_x subseteq O$.




The left to right implication is very trivial: for every $x$ we pick $O_x = O$.



The right to left implication is also easy: the right hand side condition implies that $O = bigcup O_x: x in O$ (all $O_x$ are subsets of $O$, hence so is their union, which shows $supseteq$; and every $x$ is in its own $O_x$ which shows $subseteq$) and so $O$ is a union of elements of $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ and so in $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ itself, as topologies are closed under unions.



Note that this proof only needs that $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ is a topology, not how it was defined from the collection $mathcalB$. I assume that this has been checked prior to this.






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    I think you are given a set $X$ and a collection of subsets $mathcalB$ of $X$ satisfying certain properties.



    You can then define a topology $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ on $X$ by




    $O subseteq X$ is open (i.e. $O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$) iff $forall x in O: exists B_x in mathcalB: x in B_x subseteq O$




    which can be shown to be a topology (i.e. obeying the 3 axioms) because $mathcalB$ was not arbitrary but obeyed the special properties.



    Now we want to show the simple fact that




    $O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$ iff $forall x in O: exists O_x in mathcalT(mathcalB): x in O_x subseteq O$.




    The left to right implication is very trivial: for every $x$ we pick $O_x = O$.



    The right to left implication is also easy: the right hand side condition implies that $O = bigcup O_x: x in O$ (all $O_x$ are subsets of $O$, hence so is their union, which shows $supseteq$; and every $x$ is in its own $O_x$ which shows $subseteq$) and so $O$ is a union of elements of $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ and so in $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ itself, as topologies are closed under unions.



    Note that this proof only needs that $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ is a topology, not how it was defined from the collection $mathcalB$. I assume that this has been checked prior to this.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      0
      down vote













      I think you are given a set $X$ and a collection of subsets $mathcalB$ of $X$ satisfying certain properties.



      You can then define a topology $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ on $X$ by




      $O subseteq X$ is open (i.e. $O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$) iff $forall x in O: exists B_x in mathcalB: x in B_x subseteq O$




      which can be shown to be a topology (i.e. obeying the 3 axioms) because $mathcalB$ was not arbitrary but obeyed the special properties.



      Now we want to show the simple fact that




      $O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$ iff $forall x in O: exists O_x in mathcalT(mathcalB): x in O_x subseteq O$.




      The left to right implication is very trivial: for every $x$ we pick $O_x = O$.



      The right to left implication is also easy: the right hand side condition implies that $O = bigcup O_x: x in O$ (all $O_x$ are subsets of $O$, hence so is their union, which shows $supseteq$; and every $x$ is in its own $O_x$ which shows $subseteq$) and so $O$ is a union of elements of $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ and so in $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ itself, as topologies are closed under unions.



      Note that this proof only needs that $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ is a topology, not how it was defined from the collection $mathcalB$. I assume that this has been checked prior to this.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        0
        down vote










        up vote
        0
        down vote









        I think you are given a set $X$ and a collection of subsets $mathcalB$ of $X$ satisfying certain properties.



        You can then define a topology $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ on $X$ by




        $O subseteq X$ is open (i.e. $O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$) iff $forall x in O: exists B_x in mathcalB: x in B_x subseteq O$




        which can be shown to be a topology (i.e. obeying the 3 axioms) because $mathcalB$ was not arbitrary but obeyed the special properties.



        Now we want to show the simple fact that




        $O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$ iff $forall x in O: exists O_x in mathcalT(mathcalB): x in O_x subseteq O$.




        The left to right implication is very trivial: for every $x$ we pick $O_x = O$.



        The right to left implication is also easy: the right hand side condition implies that $O = bigcup O_x: x in O$ (all $O_x$ are subsets of $O$, hence so is their union, which shows $supseteq$; and every $x$ is in its own $O_x$ which shows $subseteq$) and so $O$ is a union of elements of $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ and so in $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ itself, as topologies are closed under unions.



        Note that this proof only needs that $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ is a topology, not how it was defined from the collection $mathcalB$. I assume that this has been checked prior to this.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        I think you are given a set $X$ and a collection of subsets $mathcalB$ of $X$ satisfying certain properties.



        You can then define a topology $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ on $X$ by




        $O subseteq X$ is open (i.e. $O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$) iff $forall x in O: exists B_x in mathcalB: x in B_x subseteq O$




        which can be shown to be a topology (i.e. obeying the 3 axioms) because $mathcalB$ was not arbitrary but obeyed the special properties.



        Now we want to show the simple fact that




        $O in mathcalT(mathcalB)$ iff $forall x in O: exists O_x in mathcalT(mathcalB): x in O_x subseteq O$.




        The left to right implication is very trivial: for every $x$ we pick $O_x = O$.



        The right to left implication is also easy: the right hand side condition implies that $O = bigcup O_x: x in O$ (all $O_x$ are subsets of $O$, hence so is their union, which shows $supseteq$; and every $x$ is in its own $O_x$ which shows $subseteq$) and so $O$ is a union of elements of $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ and so in $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ itself, as topologies are closed under unions.



        Note that this proof only needs that $mathcalT(mathcalB)$ is a topology, not how it was defined from the collection $mathcalB$. I assume that this has been checked prior to this.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Jul 21 at 5:35









        Henno Brandsma

        91.6k342100




        91.6k342100






















             

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