Meaning of the nth order derivative

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We say that the number zero is infinitely differentiable(because every higher order derivative exists and is identically zero). But then if that is the case , shouldn’t every function be infinitely differentiable ? Suppose we differentiate a differentiable function $n$ number of times and we get zero , we can still differentiate it infinitely right ? Then why do many textbooks call a function twice differentiable , thrice differentiable etc. ? I’m sorry if this sounds really stupid but this was something me and my friends had a huge debate on so I wanted to clear it once and for all ! Please correct me if I am mistaken somewhere Thanks for your help







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  • When we differentiate $0$, we actually mean function $x mapsto 0$, not the number $0$
    – Rumpelstiltskin
    Jul 20 at 18:22







  • 1




    Numbers aren't differentiable, functions are. Sometimes some $n$th derivative of a function will happen to have a zero value. That tells you something about the function. Sometimes a function can be differentiated twice but not three times.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Jul 20 at 18:22






  • 2




    Polynomials are infinitely differentiable. But the function $f(x)=x|x|$ is differentiable once, but not twice.
    – quasi
    Jul 20 at 18:23






  • 1




    @Aditi $e^x$ is infinitely differentiable and its derivative is never $0$.
    – saulspatz
    Jul 20 at 18:27






  • 1




    @Aditi: There are lots of functions other than polynomials which are infinitely differentiable. For example:$;sin(x)$,$;e^x$,$;frac1x^2+1$.
    – quasi
    Jul 20 at 18:30















up vote
2
down vote

favorite












We say that the number zero is infinitely differentiable(because every higher order derivative exists and is identically zero). But then if that is the case , shouldn’t every function be infinitely differentiable ? Suppose we differentiate a differentiable function $n$ number of times and we get zero , we can still differentiate it infinitely right ? Then why do many textbooks call a function twice differentiable , thrice differentiable etc. ? I’m sorry if this sounds really stupid but this was something me and my friends had a huge debate on so I wanted to clear it once and for all ! Please correct me if I am mistaken somewhere Thanks for your help







share|cite|improve this question



















  • When we differentiate $0$, we actually mean function $x mapsto 0$, not the number $0$
    – Rumpelstiltskin
    Jul 20 at 18:22







  • 1




    Numbers aren't differentiable, functions are. Sometimes some $n$th derivative of a function will happen to have a zero value. That tells you something about the function. Sometimes a function can be differentiated twice but not three times.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Jul 20 at 18:22






  • 2




    Polynomials are infinitely differentiable. But the function $f(x)=x|x|$ is differentiable once, but not twice.
    – quasi
    Jul 20 at 18:23






  • 1




    @Aditi $e^x$ is infinitely differentiable and its derivative is never $0$.
    – saulspatz
    Jul 20 at 18:27






  • 1




    @Aditi: There are lots of functions other than polynomials which are infinitely differentiable. For example:$;sin(x)$,$;e^x$,$;frac1x^2+1$.
    – quasi
    Jul 20 at 18:30













up vote
2
down vote

favorite









up vote
2
down vote

favorite











We say that the number zero is infinitely differentiable(because every higher order derivative exists and is identically zero). But then if that is the case , shouldn’t every function be infinitely differentiable ? Suppose we differentiate a differentiable function $n$ number of times and we get zero , we can still differentiate it infinitely right ? Then why do many textbooks call a function twice differentiable , thrice differentiable etc. ? I’m sorry if this sounds really stupid but this was something me and my friends had a huge debate on so I wanted to clear it once and for all ! Please correct me if I am mistaken somewhere Thanks for your help







share|cite|improve this question











We say that the number zero is infinitely differentiable(because every higher order derivative exists and is identically zero). But then if that is the case , shouldn’t every function be infinitely differentiable ? Suppose we differentiate a differentiable function $n$ number of times and we get zero , we can still differentiate it infinitely right ? Then why do many textbooks call a function twice differentiable , thrice differentiable etc. ? I’m sorry if this sounds really stupid but this was something me and my friends had a huge debate on so I wanted to clear it once and for all ! Please correct me if I am mistaken somewhere Thanks for your help









share|cite|improve this question










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share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 20 at 18:18









Aditi

694314




694314











  • When we differentiate $0$, we actually mean function $x mapsto 0$, not the number $0$
    – Rumpelstiltskin
    Jul 20 at 18:22







  • 1




    Numbers aren't differentiable, functions are. Sometimes some $n$th derivative of a function will happen to have a zero value. That tells you something about the function. Sometimes a function can be differentiated twice but not three times.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Jul 20 at 18:22






  • 2




    Polynomials are infinitely differentiable. But the function $f(x)=x|x|$ is differentiable once, but not twice.
    – quasi
    Jul 20 at 18:23






  • 1




    @Aditi $e^x$ is infinitely differentiable and its derivative is never $0$.
    – saulspatz
    Jul 20 at 18:27






  • 1




    @Aditi: There are lots of functions other than polynomials which are infinitely differentiable. For example:$;sin(x)$,$;e^x$,$;frac1x^2+1$.
    – quasi
    Jul 20 at 18:30

















  • When we differentiate $0$, we actually mean function $x mapsto 0$, not the number $0$
    – Rumpelstiltskin
    Jul 20 at 18:22







  • 1




    Numbers aren't differentiable, functions are. Sometimes some $n$th derivative of a function will happen to have a zero value. That tells you something about the function. Sometimes a function can be differentiated twice but not three times.
    – Ethan Bolker
    Jul 20 at 18:22






  • 2




    Polynomials are infinitely differentiable. But the function $f(x)=x|x|$ is differentiable once, but not twice.
    – quasi
    Jul 20 at 18:23






  • 1




    @Aditi $e^x$ is infinitely differentiable and its derivative is never $0$.
    – saulspatz
    Jul 20 at 18:27






  • 1




    @Aditi: There are lots of functions other than polynomials which are infinitely differentiable. For example:$;sin(x)$,$;e^x$,$;frac1x^2+1$.
    – quasi
    Jul 20 at 18:30
















When we differentiate $0$, we actually mean function $x mapsto 0$, not the number $0$
– Rumpelstiltskin
Jul 20 at 18:22





When we differentiate $0$, we actually mean function $x mapsto 0$, not the number $0$
– Rumpelstiltskin
Jul 20 at 18:22





1




1




Numbers aren't differentiable, functions are. Sometimes some $n$th derivative of a function will happen to have a zero value. That tells you something about the function. Sometimes a function can be differentiated twice but not three times.
– Ethan Bolker
Jul 20 at 18:22




Numbers aren't differentiable, functions are. Sometimes some $n$th derivative of a function will happen to have a zero value. That tells you something about the function. Sometimes a function can be differentiated twice but not three times.
– Ethan Bolker
Jul 20 at 18:22




2




2




Polynomials are infinitely differentiable. But the function $f(x)=x|x|$ is differentiable once, but not twice.
– quasi
Jul 20 at 18:23




Polynomials are infinitely differentiable. But the function $f(x)=x|x|$ is differentiable once, but not twice.
– quasi
Jul 20 at 18:23




1




1




@Aditi $e^x$ is infinitely differentiable and its derivative is never $0$.
– saulspatz
Jul 20 at 18:27




@Aditi $e^x$ is infinitely differentiable and its derivative is never $0$.
– saulspatz
Jul 20 at 18:27




1




1




@Aditi: There are lots of functions other than polynomials which are infinitely differentiable. For example:$;sin(x)$,$;e^x$,$;frac1x^2+1$.
– quasi
Jul 20 at 18:30





@Aditi: There are lots of functions other than polynomials which are infinitely differentiable. For example:$;sin(x)$,$;e^x$,$;frac1x^2+1$.
– quasi
Jul 20 at 18:30











2 Answers
2






active

oldest

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up vote
3
down vote



accepted










First, if you differentiate a function $n$ times and get zero, then yes the function in question is infinitely differentiable because the zero function is itself infinitely differentiable. Of course in this case the function was necessarily a polynomial of degree at most $n-1$, so you sort of already knew they were infinitely differentiable.



Examples of functions which are finitely many times differentiable are $x|x|^n$, which is $n$ times differentiable at $0$ for positive integers $n$.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Ohh ! I’d thought a function stopped being differentiable at that point where it’s derivative becomes zero but now I understand that’s not the case . Thanks for clearing my doubt !
    – Aditi
    Jul 20 at 18:27






  • 1




    @Aditi Nope, zero derivatives, even identically zero derivatives, don't break differentiability. However, both points of nondifferentiability and points of zero derivative are critical points (i.e. candidates for local extrema). That might be the source of your confusion.
    – Ian
    Jul 20 at 18:28











  • Yes you’re correct . Thanks for helping !
    – Aditi
    Jul 20 at 18:33

















up vote
1
down vote













I'm guessing that by saying that the number $0$ is differentiable you mean that the funcion $f(x)=0$ is infinitely differentiable, which is true because of your argument.
Anyways, if you assume that the $n$-th derivative of a funcion is 0, you can integrate $n$ times and conclude that the funcion is a polynomial, which most funcions aren't.
If you want a concrete example or a funcion which is $n$ tines differentiable, integrate $f(x)=|x|$ that amount of time. The result is a function which is $n$ times differentiable over $mathbbR$, but it isn't at the origin.






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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    First, if you differentiate a function $n$ times and get zero, then yes the function in question is infinitely differentiable because the zero function is itself infinitely differentiable. Of course in this case the function was necessarily a polynomial of degree at most $n-1$, so you sort of already knew they were infinitely differentiable.



    Examples of functions which are finitely many times differentiable are $x|x|^n$, which is $n$ times differentiable at $0$ for positive integers $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Ohh ! I’d thought a function stopped being differentiable at that point where it’s derivative becomes zero but now I understand that’s not the case . Thanks for clearing my doubt !
      – Aditi
      Jul 20 at 18:27






    • 1




      @Aditi Nope, zero derivatives, even identically zero derivatives, don't break differentiability. However, both points of nondifferentiability and points of zero derivative are critical points (i.e. candidates for local extrema). That might be the source of your confusion.
      – Ian
      Jul 20 at 18:28











    • Yes you’re correct . Thanks for helping !
      – Aditi
      Jul 20 at 18:33














    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted










    First, if you differentiate a function $n$ times and get zero, then yes the function in question is infinitely differentiable because the zero function is itself infinitely differentiable. Of course in this case the function was necessarily a polynomial of degree at most $n-1$, so you sort of already knew they were infinitely differentiable.



    Examples of functions which are finitely many times differentiable are $x|x|^n$, which is $n$ times differentiable at $0$ for positive integers $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















    • Ohh ! I’d thought a function stopped being differentiable at that point where it’s derivative becomes zero but now I understand that’s not the case . Thanks for clearing my doubt !
      – Aditi
      Jul 20 at 18:27






    • 1




      @Aditi Nope, zero derivatives, even identically zero derivatives, don't break differentiability. However, both points of nondifferentiability and points of zero derivative are critical points (i.e. candidates for local extrema). That might be the source of your confusion.
      – Ian
      Jul 20 at 18:28











    • Yes you’re correct . Thanks for helping !
      – Aditi
      Jul 20 at 18:33












    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted







    up vote
    3
    down vote



    accepted






    First, if you differentiate a function $n$ times and get zero, then yes the function in question is infinitely differentiable because the zero function is itself infinitely differentiable. Of course in this case the function was necessarily a polynomial of degree at most $n-1$, so you sort of already knew they were infinitely differentiable.



    Examples of functions which are finitely many times differentiable are $x|x|^n$, which is $n$ times differentiable at $0$ for positive integers $n$.






    share|cite|improve this answer













    First, if you differentiate a function $n$ times and get zero, then yes the function in question is infinitely differentiable because the zero function is itself infinitely differentiable. Of course in this case the function was necessarily a polynomial of degree at most $n-1$, so you sort of already knew they were infinitely differentiable.



    Examples of functions which are finitely many times differentiable are $x|x|^n$, which is $n$ times differentiable at $0$ for positive integers $n$.







    share|cite|improve this answer













    share|cite|improve this answer



    share|cite|improve this answer











    answered Jul 20 at 18:25









    Ian

    65k24681




    65k24681











    • Ohh ! I’d thought a function stopped being differentiable at that point where it’s derivative becomes zero but now I understand that’s not the case . Thanks for clearing my doubt !
      – Aditi
      Jul 20 at 18:27






    • 1




      @Aditi Nope, zero derivatives, even identically zero derivatives, don't break differentiability. However, both points of nondifferentiability and points of zero derivative are critical points (i.e. candidates for local extrema). That might be the source of your confusion.
      – Ian
      Jul 20 at 18:28











    • Yes you’re correct . Thanks for helping !
      – Aditi
      Jul 20 at 18:33
















    • Ohh ! I’d thought a function stopped being differentiable at that point where it’s derivative becomes zero but now I understand that’s not the case . Thanks for clearing my doubt !
      – Aditi
      Jul 20 at 18:27






    • 1




      @Aditi Nope, zero derivatives, even identically zero derivatives, don't break differentiability. However, both points of nondifferentiability and points of zero derivative are critical points (i.e. candidates for local extrema). That might be the source of your confusion.
      – Ian
      Jul 20 at 18:28











    • Yes you’re correct . Thanks for helping !
      – Aditi
      Jul 20 at 18:33















    Ohh ! I’d thought a function stopped being differentiable at that point where it’s derivative becomes zero but now I understand that’s not the case . Thanks for clearing my doubt !
    – Aditi
    Jul 20 at 18:27




    Ohh ! I’d thought a function stopped being differentiable at that point where it’s derivative becomes zero but now I understand that’s not the case . Thanks for clearing my doubt !
    – Aditi
    Jul 20 at 18:27




    1




    1




    @Aditi Nope, zero derivatives, even identically zero derivatives, don't break differentiability. However, both points of nondifferentiability and points of zero derivative are critical points (i.e. candidates for local extrema). That might be the source of your confusion.
    – Ian
    Jul 20 at 18:28





    @Aditi Nope, zero derivatives, even identically zero derivatives, don't break differentiability. However, both points of nondifferentiability and points of zero derivative are critical points (i.e. candidates for local extrema). That might be the source of your confusion.
    – Ian
    Jul 20 at 18:28













    Yes you’re correct . Thanks for helping !
    – Aditi
    Jul 20 at 18:33




    Yes you’re correct . Thanks for helping !
    – Aditi
    Jul 20 at 18:33










    up vote
    1
    down vote













    I'm guessing that by saying that the number $0$ is differentiable you mean that the funcion $f(x)=0$ is infinitely differentiable, which is true because of your argument.
    Anyways, if you assume that the $n$-th derivative of a funcion is 0, you can integrate $n$ times and conclude that the funcion is a polynomial, which most funcions aren't.
    If you want a concrete example or a funcion which is $n$ tines differentiable, integrate $f(x)=|x|$ that amount of time. The result is a function which is $n$ times differentiable over $mathbbR$, but it isn't at the origin.






    share|cite|improve this answer

























      up vote
      1
      down vote













      I'm guessing that by saying that the number $0$ is differentiable you mean that the funcion $f(x)=0$ is infinitely differentiable, which is true because of your argument.
      Anyways, if you assume that the $n$-th derivative of a funcion is 0, you can integrate $n$ times and conclude that the funcion is a polynomial, which most funcions aren't.
      If you want a concrete example or a funcion which is $n$ tines differentiable, integrate $f(x)=|x|$ that amount of time. The result is a function which is $n$ times differentiable over $mathbbR$, but it isn't at the origin.






      share|cite|improve this answer























        up vote
        1
        down vote










        up vote
        1
        down vote









        I'm guessing that by saying that the number $0$ is differentiable you mean that the funcion $f(x)=0$ is infinitely differentiable, which is true because of your argument.
        Anyways, if you assume that the $n$-th derivative of a funcion is 0, you can integrate $n$ times and conclude that the funcion is a polynomial, which most funcions aren't.
        If you want a concrete example or a funcion which is $n$ tines differentiable, integrate $f(x)=|x|$ that amount of time. The result is a function which is $n$ times differentiable over $mathbbR$, but it isn't at the origin.






        share|cite|improve this answer













        I'm guessing that by saying that the number $0$ is differentiable you mean that the funcion $f(x)=0$ is infinitely differentiable, which is true because of your argument.
        Anyways, if you assume that the $n$-th derivative of a funcion is 0, you can integrate $n$ times and conclude that the funcion is a polynomial, which most funcions aren't.
        If you want a concrete example or a funcion which is $n$ tines differentiable, integrate $f(x)=|x|$ that amount of time. The result is a function which is $n$ times differentiable over $mathbbR$, but it isn't at the origin.







        share|cite|improve this answer













        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer











        answered Jul 20 at 18:29









        Darth Lubinus

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