If $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic then $f$ is holomorphic or antiholomorphic

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I have this problem.



Let $f:Dto mathbbC$ be a function such that $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic (Their real and imaginary parts are harmonic). Then $f$ is holomorphic or antiholomorphic.



I tried to solve it by computing the laplacian of real and imaginary parts, but it becomes very cumbersome. Is there a better way?







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    It is a cleaner trip if you write the computation using the Wirtinger derivatives. That $f$ is harmonic means that $fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf=0$. Then, compute $0=fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial z(frac1zcirc f)$. The chain rule gives you $=fracpartialpartial overlinez(-frac1f^2)cdot fracpartial fpartial z+left(-frac1f^2right)cdot fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf$ ...
    – user577471
    Jul 20 at 17:18











  • So, either $fracpartial fpartial z=0$, in which case $f$ is anti-holomorphic, or $fracpartialpartialoverlinezleft(-frac1f^2right)=0$. Do another chain rule to get $2cdot frac1f^3fracpartial fpartialoverlinez=0$, which gives you that $f$ is holomorphic.
    – user577471
    Jul 20 at 17:21















up vote
4
down vote

favorite












I have this problem.



Let $f:Dto mathbbC$ be a function such that $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic (Their real and imaginary parts are harmonic). Then $f$ is holomorphic or antiholomorphic.



I tried to solve it by computing the laplacian of real and imaginary parts, but it becomes very cumbersome. Is there a better way?







share|cite|improve this question















  • 1




    It is a cleaner trip if you write the computation using the Wirtinger derivatives. That $f$ is harmonic means that $fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf=0$. Then, compute $0=fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial z(frac1zcirc f)$. The chain rule gives you $=fracpartialpartial overlinez(-frac1f^2)cdot fracpartial fpartial z+left(-frac1f^2right)cdot fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf$ ...
    – user577471
    Jul 20 at 17:18











  • So, either $fracpartial fpartial z=0$, in which case $f$ is anti-holomorphic, or $fracpartialpartialoverlinezleft(-frac1f^2right)=0$. Do another chain rule to get $2cdot frac1f^3fracpartial fpartialoverlinez=0$, which gives you that $f$ is holomorphic.
    – user577471
    Jul 20 at 17:21













up vote
4
down vote

favorite









up vote
4
down vote

favorite











I have this problem.



Let $f:Dto mathbbC$ be a function such that $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic (Their real and imaginary parts are harmonic). Then $f$ is holomorphic or antiholomorphic.



I tried to solve it by computing the laplacian of real and imaginary parts, but it becomes very cumbersome. Is there a better way?







share|cite|improve this question











I have this problem.



Let $f:Dto mathbbC$ be a function such that $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic (Their real and imaginary parts are harmonic). Then $f$ is holomorphic or antiholomorphic.



I tried to solve it by computing the laplacian of real and imaginary parts, but it becomes very cumbersome. Is there a better way?









share|cite|improve this question










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asked Jul 20 at 17:04









Nell

33819




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  • 1




    It is a cleaner trip if you write the computation using the Wirtinger derivatives. That $f$ is harmonic means that $fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf=0$. Then, compute $0=fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial z(frac1zcirc f)$. The chain rule gives you $=fracpartialpartial overlinez(-frac1f^2)cdot fracpartial fpartial z+left(-frac1f^2right)cdot fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf$ ...
    – user577471
    Jul 20 at 17:18











  • So, either $fracpartial fpartial z=0$, in which case $f$ is anti-holomorphic, or $fracpartialpartialoverlinezleft(-frac1f^2right)=0$. Do another chain rule to get $2cdot frac1f^3fracpartial fpartialoverlinez=0$, which gives you that $f$ is holomorphic.
    – user577471
    Jul 20 at 17:21













  • 1




    It is a cleaner trip if you write the computation using the Wirtinger derivatives. That $f$ is harmonic means that $fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf=0$. Then, compute $0=fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial z(frac1zcirc f)$. The chain rule gives you $=fracpartialpartial overlinez(-frac1f^2)cdot fracpartial fpartial z+left(-frac1f^2right)cdot fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf$ ...
    – user577471
    Jul 20 at 17:18











  • So, either $fracpartial fpartial z=0$, in which case $f$ is anti-holomorphic, or $fracpartialpartialoverlinezleft(-frac1f^2right)=0$. Do another chain rule to get $2cdot frac1f^3fracpartial fpartialoverlinez=0$, which gives you that $f$ is holomorphic.
    – user577471
    Jul 20 at 17:21








1




1




It is a cleaner trip if you write the computation using the Wirtinger derivatives. That $f$ is harmonic means that $fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf=0$. Then, compute $0=fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial z(frac1zcirc f)$. The chain rule gives you $=fracpartialpartial overlinez(-frac1f^2)cdot fracpartial fpartial z+left(-frac1f^2right)cdot fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf$ ...
– user577471
Jul 20 at 17:18





It is a cleaner trip if you write the computation using the Wirtinger derivatives. That $f$ is harmonic means that $fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf=0$. Then, compute $0=fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial z(frac1zcirc f)$. The chain rule gives you $=fracpartialpartial overlinez(-frac1f^2)cdot fracpartial fpartial z+left(-frac1f^2right)cdot fracpartialpartial overlinezfracpartialpartial zf$ ...
– user577471
Jul 20 at 17:18













So, either $fracpartial fpartial z=0$, in which case $f$ is anti-holomorphic, or $fracpartialpartialoverlinezleft(-frac1f^2right)=0$. Do another chain rule to get $2cdot frac1f^3fracpartial fpartialoverlinez=0$, which gives you that $f$ is holomorphic.
– user577471
Jul 20 at 17:21





So, either $fracpartial fpartial z=0$, in which case $f$ is anti-holomorphic, or $fracpartialpartialoverlinezleft(-frac1f^2right)=0$. Do another chain rule to get $2cdot frac1f^3fracpartial fpartialoverlinez=0$, which gives you that $f$ is holomorphic.
– user577471
Jul 20 at 17:21











2 Answers
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Possible idea. Let $f=f(x,y)$. If $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic then
$$
fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 = 0
$$
$$
fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = 0
$$
where
$$
fracpartial 1/fpartial x = -fracpartial fpartial x frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3
$$



$$
fracpartial 1/fpartial y = -fracpartial fpartial y frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3
$$
So
$$
-fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3-fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3 = frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)
$$



$$
frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)=0
$$
Since $f not equiv 0$, we have
$$
0=left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2 =left(fracpartial fpartial x+fracpartial f partial yiright)left(fracpartial fpartial x-fracpartial f partial yiright)
$$






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    Let $fracmathrmdmathrmdz=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx-mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ and $fracmathrmdmathrmdoverlinez=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx+mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ as usual. Then $$fracmathrmd^2mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = frac14left(fracmathrmd^2mathrmdx^2+ fracmathrmd^2mathrmdy^2right)$$ and $f$ is holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez=0$ or anti-holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdz=0$. Now under the given conditions $$0 = fracmathrmd^2 f^-1mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = 2 f^-3 fracmathrmdfmathrmdz fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez.$$






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      2 Answers
      2






      active

      oldest

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      2 Answers
      2






      active

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      active

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      active

      oldest

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      up vote
      4
      down vote













      Possible idea. Let $f=f(x,y)$. If $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic then
      $$
      fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 = 0
      $$
      $$
      fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = 0
      $$
      where
      $$
      fracpartial 1/fpartial x = -fracpartial fpartial x frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3
      $$



      $$
      fracpartial 1/fpartial y = -fracpartial fpartial y frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3
      $$
      So
      $$
      -fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3-fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3 = frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)
      $$



      $$
      frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)=0
      $$
      Since $f not equiv 0$, we have
      $$
      0=left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2 =left(fracpartial fpartial x+fracpartial f partial yiright)left(fracpartial fpartial x-fracpartial f partial yiright)
      $$






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        4
        down vote













        Possible idea. Let $f=f(x,y)$. If $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic then
        $$
        fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 = 0
        $$
        $$
        fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = 0
        $$
        where
        $$
        fracpartial 1/fpartial x = -fracpartial fpartial x frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3
        $$



        $$
        fracpartial 1/fpartial y = -fracpartial fpartial y frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3
        $$
        So
        $$
        -fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3-fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3 = frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)
        $$



        $$
        frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)=0
        $$
        Since $f not equiv 0$, we have
        $$
        0=left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2 =left(fracpartial fpartial x+fracpartial f partial yiright)left(fracpartial fpartial x-fracpartial f partial yiright)
        $$






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          4
          down vote










          up vote
          4
          down vote









          Possible idea. Let $f=f(x,y)$. If $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic then
          $$
          fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 = 0
          $$
          $$
          fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = 0
          $$
          where
          $$
          fracpartial 1/fpartial x = -fracpartial fpartial x frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3
          $$



          $$
          fracpartial 1/fpartial y = -fracpartial fpartial y frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3
          $$
          So
          $$
          -fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3-fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3 = frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)
          $$



          $$
          frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)=0
          $$
          Since $f not equiv 0$, we have
          $$
          0=left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2 =left(fracpartial fpartial x+fracpartial f partial yiright)left(fracpartial fpartial x-fracpartial f partial yiright)
          $$






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Possible idea. Let $f=f(x,y)$. If $f$ and $1/f$ are harmonic then
          $$
          fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 = 0
          $$
          $$
          fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 + fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = 0
          $$
          where
          $$
          fracpartial 1/fpartial x = -fracpartial fpartial x frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial x^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3
          $$



          $$
          fracpartial 1/fpartial y = -fracpartial fpartial y frac1f^2 qquad fracpartial^2 1/fpartial y^2 = -fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3
          $$
          So
          $$
          -fracpartial^2 fpartial x^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2frac1f^3-fracpartial^2 fpartial y^2 frac1f^2 +2left(fracpartial fpartial yright)^2frac1f^3 = frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)
          $$



          $$
          frac2f^3left(left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2right)=0
          $$
          Since $f not equiv 0$, we have
          $$
          0=left(fracpartial fpartial xright)^2+left(fracpartial f partial yright)^2 =left(fracpartial fpartial x+fracpartial f partial yiright)left(fracpartial fpartial x-fracpartial f partial yiright)
          $$







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          answered Jul 20 at 17:18









          Rafael Gonzalez Lopez

          652112




          652112




















              up vote
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              Let $fracmathrmdmathrmdz=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx-mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ and $fracmathrmdmathrmdoverlinez=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx+mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ as usual. Then $$fracmathrmd^2mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = frac14left(fracmathrmd^2mathrmdx^2+ fracmathrmd^2mathrmdy^2right)$$ and $f$ is holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez=0$ or anti-holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdz=0$. Now under the given conditions $$0 = fracmathrmd^2 f^-1mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = 2 f^-3 fracmathrmdfmathrmdz fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez.$$






              share|cite|improve this answer



























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Let $fracmathrmdmathrmdz=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx-mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ and $fracmathrmdmathrmdoverlinez=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx+mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ as usual. Then $$fracmathrmd^2mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = frac14left(fracmathrmd^2mathrmdx^2+ fracmathrmd^2mathrmdy^2right)$$ and $f$ is holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez=0$ or anti-holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdz=0$. Now under the given conditions $$0 = fracmathrmd^2 f^-1mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = 2 f^-3 fracmathrmdfmathrmdz fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez.$$






                share|cite|improve this answer

























                  up vote
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                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  Let $fracmathrmdmathrmdz=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx-mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ and $fracmathrmdmathrmdoverlinez=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx+mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ as usual. Then $$fracmathrmd^2mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = frac14left(fracmathrmd^2mathrmdx^2+ fracmathrmd^2mathrmdy^2right)$$ and $f$ is holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez=0$ or anti-holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdz=0$. Now under the given conditions $$0 = fracmathrmd^2 f^-1mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = 2 f^-3 fracmathrmdfmathrmdz fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez.$$






                  share|cite|improve this answer















                  Let $fracmathrmdmathrmdz=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx-mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ and $fracmathrmdmathrmdoverlinez=tfrac12(fracmathrmdmathrmdx+mathrmifracmathrmdmathrmdy)$ as usual. Then $$fracmathrmd^2mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = frac14left(fracmathrmd^2mathrmdx^2+ fracmathrmd^2mathrmdy^2right)$$ and $f$ is holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez=0$ or anti-holomorphic if $fracmathrmdfmathrmdz=0$. Now under the given conditions $$0 = fracmathrmd^2 f^-1mathrmdz , mathrmdoverlinez = 2 f^-3 fracmathrmdfmathrmdz fracmathrmdfmathrmdoverlinez.$$







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                  edited Jul 20 at 17:36


























                  answered Jul 20 at 17:30









                  WimC

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