An affine scheme is integral if and only if it is connected and all stalks are integral domains.

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Let X=Spec A. So far I have shown the easy side, i.e, if the affine scheme is integral, then it's irreducible and so connected. Since all stalks are localization of A at prime ideals, we have that all stalks are integral domains since A is an integral domain.
I am having trouble proving the other way. I'm trying to prove that A is an integral domain by looking at A as the ring of global sections of X. So let f,g be two global sections of X such that fg=0. Then f_x.g_x=0(product of stalks) for all x. Then the points where the stalks of f are zero form an open set. I'm not able to show that it's also closed to get a disconnection.







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  • Stacks project seems to say your question is not true but I haven’t read their example stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0568
    – usr0192
    Jul 21 at 5:17










  • Maybe you mean irreducible (as opposed to connected) and stalks are domains?
    – usr0192
    Jul 21 at 5:22










  • @usr0192 Yes, according to the stacks project, the above is not true. It's true if connected is replaced by irreducible. Thank you!
    – user567863
    Jul 21 at 10:25










  • Another fix is to add Noetherian (and non-empty) to the hypotheses.
    – Samir Canning
    Jul 21 at 19:33










  • @SamirCanning You are right, in that case X need not necessarily be affine.
    – user567863
    Jul 22 at 0:23














up vote
1
down vote

favorite












Let X=Spec A. So far I have shown the easy side, i.e, if the affine scheme is integral, then it's irreducible and so connected. Since all stalks are localization of A at prime ideals, we have that all stalks are integral domains since A is an integral domain.
I am having trouble proving the other way. I'm trying to prove that A is an integral domain by looking at A as the ring of global sections of X. So let f,g be two global sections of X such that fg=0. Then f_x.g_x=0(product of stalks) for all x. Then the points where the stalks of f are zero form an open set. I'm not able to show that it's also closed to get a disconnection.







share|cite|improve this question



















  • Stacks project seems to say your question is not true but I haven’t read their example stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0568
    – usr0192
    Jul 21 at 5:17










  • Maybe you mean irreducible (as opposed to connected) and stalks are domains?
    – usr0192
    Jul 21 at 5:22










  • @usr0192 Yes, according to the stacks project, the above is not true. It's true if connected is replaced by irreducible. Thank you!
    – user567863
    Jul 21 at 10:25










  • Another fix is to add Noetherian (and non-empty) to the hypotheses.
    – Samir Canning
    Jul 21 at 19:33










  • @SamirCanning You are right, in that case X need not necessarily be affine.
    – user567863
    Jul 22 at 0:23












up vote
1
down vote

favorite









up vote
1
down vote

favorite











Let X=Spec A. So far I have shown the easy side, i.e, if the affine scheme is integral, then it's irreducible and so connected. Since all stalks are localization of A at prime ideals, we have that all stalks are integral domains since A is an integral domain.
I am having trouble proving the other way. I'm trying to prove that A is an integral domain by looking at A as the ring of global sections of X. So let f,g be two global sections of X such that fg=0. Then f_x.g_x=0(product of stalks) for all x. Then the points where the stalks of f are zero form an open set. I'm not able to show that it's also closed to get a disconnection.







share|cite|improve this question











Let X=Spec A. So far I have shown the easy side, i.e, if the affine scheme is integral, then it's irreducible and so connected. Since all stalks are localization of A at prime ideals, we have that all stalks are integral domains since A is an integral domain.
I am having trouble proving the other way. I'm trying to prove that A is an integral domain by looking at A as the ring of global sections of X. So let f,g be two global sections of X such that fg=0. Then f_x.g_x=0(product of stalks) for all x. Then the points where the stalks of f are zero form an open set. I'm not able to show that it's also closed to get a disconnection.









share|cite|improve this question










share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question









asked Jul 21 at 3:24









user567863

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  • Stacks project seems to say your question is not true but I haven’t read their example stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0568
    – usr0192
    Jul 21 at 5:17










  • Maybe you mean irreducible (as opposed to connected) and stalks are domains?
    – usr0192
    Jul 21 at 5:22










  • @usr0192 Yes, according to the stacks project, the above is not true. It's true if connected is replaced by irreducible. Thank you!
    – user567863
    Jul 21 at 10:25










  • Another fix is to add Noetherian (and non-empty) to the hypotheses.
    – Samir Canning
    Jul 21 at 19:33










  • @SamirCanning You are right, in that case X need not necessarily be affine.
    – user567863
    Jul 22 at 0:23
















  • Stacks project seems to say your question is not true but I haven’t read their example stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0568
    – usr0192
    Jul 21 at 5:17










  • Maybe you mean irreducible (as opposed to connected) and stalks are domains?
    – usr0192
    Jul 21 at 5:22










  • @usr0192 Yes, according to the stacks project, the above is not true. It's true if connected is replaced by irreducible. Thank you!
    – user567863
    Jul 21 at 10:25










  • Another fix is to add Noetherian (and non-empty) to the hypotheses.
    – Samir Canning
    Jul 21 at 19:33










  • @SamirCanning You are right, in that case X need not necessarily be affine.
    – user567863
    Jul 22 at 0:23















Stacks project seems to say your question is not true but I haven’t read their example stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0568
– usr0192
Jul 21 at 5:17




Stacks project seems to say your question is not true but I haven’t read their example stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/0568
– usr0192
Jul 21 at 5:17












Maybe you mean irreducible (as opposed to connected) and stalks are domains?
– usr0192
Jul 21 at 5:22




Maybe you mean irreducible (as opposed to connected) and stalks are domains?
– usr0192
Jul 21 at 5:22












@usr0192 Yes, according to the stacks project, the above is not true. It's true if connected is replaced by irreducible. Thank you!
– user567863
Jul 21 at 10:25




@usr0192 Yes, according to the stacks project, the above is not true. It's true if connected is replaced by irreducible. Thank you!
– user567863
Jul 21 at 10:25












Another fix is to add Noetherian (and non-empty) to the hypotheses.
– Samir Canning
Jul 21 at 19:33




Another fix is to add Noetherian (and non-empty) to the hypotheses.
– Samir Canning
Jul 21 at 19:33












@SamirCanning You are right, in that case X need not necessarily be affine.
– user567863
Jul 22 at 0:23




@SamirCanning You are right, in that case X need not necessarily be affine.
– user567863
Jul 22 at 0:23















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