Automorphism of a non-abelian finite group sending 3/4 of elements to inverses
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Taken From Topic in ALgebra herstein, Page No .71, question No.12
can you find an example of a finite group which is
non-abelian and which has an automorphism which maps exactly
three-quarters of the elements of G onto their inverses?
My attempts : my professor said me That take $mathbbQ_8$(Quaternion group).
i take $T= beginbmatrix 1 &-1&i&-i&j&-j&k&-k \ 1& -1&-i&i&-j&j&k&-k endbmatrix$
Now How can i show that $ T $ is an auto morphism of $mathbbQ$ which transfer exactly $frac34$ element of $mathbbQ$ into their inverse
Pliz help me,,,
thanks u
abstract-algebra
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Taken From Topic in ALgebra herstein, Page No .71, question No.12
can you find an example of a finite group which is
non-abelian and which has an automorphism which maps exactly
three-quarters of the elements of G onto their inverses?
My attempts : my professor said me That take $mathbbQ_8$(Quaternion group).
i take $T= beginbmatrix 1 &-1&i&-i&j&-j&k&-k \ 1& -1&-i&i&-j&j&k&-k endbmatrix$
Now How can i show that $ T $ is an auto morphism of $mathbbQ$ which transfer exactly $frac34$ element of $mathbbQ$ into their inverse
Pliz help me,,,
thanks u
abstract-algebra
3
That title is rather misleading.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
okk@LordSharktheUnknown..then what title i have to put
– stupid
17 hours ago
2
"How can i show that $T$ is ..." $leftarrow$ what is $T$?
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
Well, you can see that $T$ maps exactly $3/4$ of the elements onto their inverses. Now prove that $T$ is an automorphism.
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
That certainly maps six elements to their inverses, but is it an automorphism? Could it be an inner automorphism say?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
up vote
0
down vote
favorite
Taken From Topic in ALgebra herstein, Page No .71, question No.12
can you find an example of a finite group which is
non-abelian and which has an automorphism which maps exactly
three-quarters of the elements of G onto their inverses?
My attempts : my professor said me That take $mathbbQ_8$(Quaternion group).
i take $T= beginbmatrix 1 &-1&i&-i&j&-j&k&-k \ 1& -1&-i&i&-j&j&k&-k endbmatrix$
Now How can i show that $ T $ is an auto morphism of $mathbbQ$ which transfer exactly $frac34$ element of $mathbbQ$ into their inverse
Pliz help me,,,
thanks u
abstract-algebra
Taken From Topic in ALgebra herstein, Page No .71, question No.12
can you find an example of a finite group which is
non-abelian and which has an automorphism which maps exactly
three-quarters of the elements of G onto their inverses?
My attempts : my professor said me That take $mathbbQ_8$(Quaternion group).
i take $T= beginbmatrix 1 &-1&i&-i&j&-j&k&-k \ 1& -1&-i&i&-j&j&k&-k endbmatrix$
Now How can i show that $ T $ is an auto morphism of $mathbbQ$ which transfer exactly $frac34$ element of $mathbbQ$ into their inverse
Pliz help me,,,
thanks u
abstract-algebra
edited 17 hours ago
asked 17 hours ago
stupid
4888
4888
3
That title is rather misleading.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
okk@LordSharktheUnknown..then what title i have to put
– stupid
17 hours ago
2
"How can i show that $T$ is ..." $leftarrow$ what is $T$?
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
Well, you can see that $T$ maps exactly $3/4$ of the elements onto their inverses. Now prove that $T$ is an automorphism.
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
That certainly maps six elements to their inverses, but is it an automorphism? Could it be an inner automorphism say?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
3
That title is rather misleading.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
okk@LordSharktheUnknown..then what title i have to put
– stupid
17 hours ago
2
"How can i show that $T$ is ..." $leftarrow$ what is $T$?
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
Well, you can see that $T$ maps exactly $3/4$ of the elements onto their inverses. Now prove that $T$ is an automorphism.
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
That certainly maps six elements to their inverses, but is it an automorphism? Could it be an inner automorphism say?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
3
3
That title is rather misleading.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
That title is rather misleading.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
okk@LordSharktheUnknown..then what title i have to put
– stupid
17 hours ago
okk@LordSharktheUnknown..then what title i have to put
– stupid
17 hours ago
2
2
"How can i show that $T$ is ..." $leftarrow$ what is $T$?
– Théophile
17 hours ago
"How can i show that $T$ is ..." $leftarrow$ what is $T$?
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
1
Well, you can see that $T$ maps exactly $3/4$ of the elements onto their inverses. Now prove that $T$ is an automorphism.
– Théophile
17 hours ago
Well, you can see that $T$ maps exactly $3/4$ of the elements onto their inverses. Now prove that $T$ is an automorphism.
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
1
That certainly maps six elements to their inverses, but is it an automorphism? Could it be an inner automorphism say?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
That certainly maps six elements to their inverses, but is it an automorphism? Could it be an inner automorphism say?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
 |Â
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
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An automorphism is an isomorphism $T:Gto G$. I.e. An isomorphism to itself. You explicitly defined a permutation of elements so it is certainly a bijection.
It therefore suffices to show that $T$ is a homomorphism. This is rather awkward if you want to check it directly. (Because you have a lot of combinations to check.)
It is somewhat easier if you define what happens to the generating elements and extend the map to a homomorphism and check that they satisfy the given relations.
I.e $Q_8=langle i,j,k: i^4=j^4=k^4=1, ij=k, jk=i, ki=jrangle $ And define $T(I), T(j), T(k)$ and show they satisfy the given relations.
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
An automorphism is an isomorphism $T:Gto G$. I.e. An isomorphism to itself. You explicitly defined a permutation of elements so it is certainly a bijection.
It therefore suffices to show that $T$ is a homomorphism. This is rather awkward if you want to check it directly. (Because you have a lot of combinations to check.)
It is somewhat easier if you define what happens to the generating elements and extend the map to a homomorphism and check that they satisfy the given relations.
I.e $Q_8=langle i,j,k: i^4=j^4=k^4=1, ij=k, jk=i, ki=jrangle $ And define $T(I), T(j), T(k)$ and show they satisfy the given relations.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
An automorphism is an isomorphism $T:Gto G$. I.e. An isomorphism to itself. You explicitly defined a permutation of elements so it is certainly a bijection.
It therefore suffices to show that $T$ is a homomorphism. This is rather awkward if you want to check it directly. (Because you have a lot of combinations to check.)
It is somewhat easier if you define what happens to the generating elements and extend the map to a homomorphism and check that they satisfy the given relations.
I.e $Q_8=langle i,j,k: i^4=j^4=k^4=1, ij=k, jk=i, ki=jrangle $ And define $T(I), T(j), T(k)$ and show they satisfy the given relations.
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
An automorphism is an isomorphism $T:Gto G$. I.e. An isomorphism to itself. You explicitly defined a permutation of elements so it is certainly a bijection.
It therefore suffices to show that $T$ is a homomorphism. This is rather awkward if you want to check it directly. (Because you have a lot of combinations to check.)
It is somewhat easier if you define what happens to the generating elements and extend the map to a homomorphism and check that they satisfy the given relations.
I.e $Q_8=langle i,j,k: i^4=j^4=k^4=1, ij=k, jk=i, ki=jrangle $ And define $T(I), T(j), T(k)$ and show they satisfy the given relations.
An automorphism is an isomorphism $T:Gto G$. I.e. An isomorphism to itself. You explicitly defined a permutation of elements so it is certainly a bijection.
It therefore suffices to show that $T$ is a homomorphism. This is rather awkward if you want to check it directly. (Because you have a lot of combinations to check.)
It is somewhat easier if you define what happens to the generating elements and extend the map to a homomorphism and check that they satisfy the given relations.
I.e $Q_8=langle i,j,k: i^4=j^4=k^4=1, ij=k, jk=i, ki=jrangle $ And define $T(I), T(j), T(k)$ and show they satisfy the given relations.
answered 15 hours ago
daruma
751411
751411
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3
That title is rather misleading.
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago
okk@LordSharktheUnknown..then what title i have to put
– stupid
17 hours ago
2
"How can i show that $T$ is ..." $leftarrow$ what is $T$?
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
Well, you can see that $T$ maps exactly $3/4$ of the elements onto their inverses. Now prove that $T$ is an automorphism.
– Théophile
17 hours ago
1
That certainly maps six elements to their inverses, but is it an automorphism? Could it be an inner automorphism say?
– Lord Shark the Unknown
17 hours ago