Bounding the integral over a set by square root of its measure

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While studying for an upcoming qualifying exam, I have been attempting to solve questions from previous exams. One question has been bothering me for some time now.




Let $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ be a measurable function such that for some $C>0$
$$m(f(x))leq Clambda^-2, textfor all $lambda>0$.$$
Prove that there is some $C'>0$ such that
$$int_E|f(x)| dxleq C'sqrtm(E), textfor all measurable $Esubsetmathbb R$.$$




If I can show that $fin L^2(mathbb R)$, then a relatively easy argument involving Jensen's inequality can establish the desired inequality with $C'=|f|_2$. But I am unable to show that $fin L^2(mathbb R)$ (and I'm not very confident that the hypotheses prove this), and have not found a good alternative approach.



Any advice as to how I should proceed would be greatly appreciated.







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    While studying for an upcoming qualifying exam, I have been attempting to solve questions from previous exams. One question has been bothering me for some time now.




    Let $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ be a measurable function such that for some $C>0$
    $$m(f(x))leq Clambda^-2, textfor all $lambda>0$.$$
    Prove that there is some $C'>0$ such that
    $$int_E|f(x)| dxleq C'sqrtm(E), textfor all measurable $Esubsetmathbb R$.$$




    If I can show that $fin L^2(mathbb R)$, then a relatively easy argument involving Jensen's inequality can establish the desired inequality with $C'=|f|_2$. But I am unable to show that $fin L^2(mathbb R)$ (and I'm not very confident that the hypotheses prove this), and have not found a good alternative approach.



    Any advice as to how I should proceed would be greatly appreciated.







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      While studying for an upcoming qualifying exam, I have been attempting to solve questions from previous exams. One question has been bothering me for some time now.




      Let $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ be a measurable function such that for some $C>0$
      $$m(f(x))leq Clambda^-2, textfor all $lambda>0$.$$
      Prove that there is some $C'>0$ such that
      $$int_E|f(x)| dxleq C'sqrtm(E), textfor all measurable $Esubsetmathbb R$.$$




      If I can show that $fin L^2(mathbb R)$, then a relatively easy argument involving Jensen's inequality can establish the desired inequality with $C'=|f|_2$. But I am unable to show that $fin L^2(mathbb R)$ (and I'm not very confident that the hypotheses prove this), and have not found a good alternative approach.



      Any advice as to how I should proceed would be greatly appreciated.







      share|cite|improve this question













      While studying for an upcoming qualifying exam, I have been attempting to solve questions from previous exams. One question has been bothering me for some time now.




      Let $f:mathbb Rtomathbb R$ be a measurable function such that for some $C>0$
      $$m(f(x))leq Clambda^-2, textfor all $lambda>0$.$$
      Prove that there is some $C'>0$ such that
      $$int_E|f(x)| dxleq C'sqrtm(E), textfor all measurable $Esubsetmathbb R$.$$




      If I can show that $fin L^2(mathbb R)$, then a relatively easy argument involving Jensen's inequality can establish the desired inequality with $C'=|f|_2$. But I am unable to show that $fin L^2(mathbb R)$ (and I'm not very confident that the hypotheses prove this), and have not found a good alternative approach.



      Any advice as to how I should proceed would be greatly appreciated.









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 3 at 23:56
























      asked Aug 3 at 23:21









      Aweygan

      11.8k21436




      11.8k21436




















          1 Answer
          1






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          oldest

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          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          Here's a somewhat detailed outline of a proof.



          Recall the following formula for the integral of a function:
          $$
          int_E |f(x)|, dx = int_0^infty mf(x), dlambda.
          $$
          Now split the last integral into two integrals $int_0^t$ and $int_t^infty$ for $t$ to be determined. Bound the first by $tm(E)$ and the second by $C/t$ and then find the $t$ that minimizes the upper bound.



          To see that your hypotheses do not imply $fin L^2(mathbbR)$ (or even $fin L^2_loc(mathbbR)$) consider $f(x)=|x|^-1/2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Very nice answer!
            – amsmath
            2 days ago










          • Ahh thank you. I was not familiar with that integral formula.
            – Aweygan
            2 days ago










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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          Here's a somewhat detailed outline of a proof.



          Recall the following formula for the integral of a function:
          $$
          int_E |f(x)|, dx = int_0^infty mf(x), dlambda.
          $$
          Now split the last integral into two integrals $int_0^t$ and $int_t^infty$ for $t$ to be determined. Bound the first by $tm(E)$ and the second by $C/t$ and then find the $t$ that minimizes the upper bound.



          To see that your hypotheses do not imply $fin L^2(mathbbR)$ (or even $fin L^2_loc(mathbbR)$) consider $f(x)=|x|^-1/2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Very nice answer!
            – amsmath
            2 days ago










          • Ahh thank you. I was not familiar with that integral formula.
            – Aweygan
            2 days ago














          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted










          Here's a somewhat detailed outline of a proof.



          Recall the following formula for the integral of a function:
          $$
          int_E |f(x)|, dx = int_0^infty mf(x), dlambda.
          $$
          Now split the last integral into two integrals $int_0^t$ and $int_t^infty$ for $t$ to be determined. Bound the first by $tm(E)$ and the second by $C/t$ and then find the $t$ that minimizes the upper bound.



          To see that your hypotheses do not imply $fin L^2(mathbbR)$ (or even $fin L^2_loc(mathbbR)$) consider $f(x)=|x|^-1/2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Very nice answer!
            – amsmath
            2 days ago










          • Ahh thank you. I was not familiar with that integral formula.
            – Aweygan
            2 days ago












          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          4
          down vote



          accepted






          Here's a somewhat detailed outline of a proof.



          Recall the following formula for the integral of a function:
          $$
          int_E |f(x)|, dx = int_0^infty mf(x), dlambda.
          $$
          Now split the last integral into two integrals $int_0^t$ and $int_t^infty$ for $t$ to be determined. Bound the first by $tm(E)$ and the second by $C/t$ and then find the $t$ that minimizes the upper bound.



          To see that your hypotheses do not imply $fin L^2(mathbbR)$ (or even $fin L^2_loc(mathbbR)$) consider $f(x)=|x|^-1/2$.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Here's a somewhat detailed outline of a proof.



          Recall the following formula for the integral of a function:
          $$
          int_E |f(x)|, dx = int_0^infty mf(x), dlambda.
          $$
          Now split the last integral into two integrals $int_0^t$ and $int_t^infty$ for $t$ to be determined. Bound the first by $tm(E)$ and the second by $C/t$ and then find the $t$ that minimizes the upper bound.



          To see that your hypotheses do not imply $fin L^2(mathbbR)$ (or even $fin L^2_loc(mathbbR)$) consider $f(x)=|x|^-1/2$.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited 2 days ago


























          answered 2 days ago









          Jose27

          6,1951912




          6,1951912











          • Very nice answer!
            – amsmath
            2 days ago










          • Ahh thank you. I was not familiar with that integral formula.
            – Aweygan
            2 days ago
















          • Very nice answer!
            – amsmath
            2 days ago










          • Ahh thank you. I was not familiar with that integral formula.
            – Aweygan
            2 days ago















          Very nice answer!
          – amsmath
          2 days ago




          Very nice answer!
          – amsmath
          2 days ago












          Ahh thank you. I was not familiar with that integral formula.
          – Aweygan
          2 days ago




          Ahh thank you. I was not familiar with that integral formula.
          – Aweygan
          2 days ago












           

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