Which functions satisfy $f^n(x) = f(x)^n$ for some $n ge 2$?

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Let $n$ be an integer greater than $1$. The notation $f^n$ is notoriously ambiguous: it means either the $n$-th iterate of $f$ or its $n$-th power.



I was wondering when the two interpretations are in fact the same. In other words, if we write $f^n(x)$ for $f(f(dotsb f(x) dotsb))$ and $f(x)^n$ for $f(x) cdot f(x) dotsb f(x)$:




For which functions $f colon I to mathbb R$ is $f^n(x) = f(x)^n$ for all $x in I$?




So far I have been able to show that:



  • The constant functions $f(x) = 0$ and $f(x) = 1$ satisfy the condition for all $n$ and $f(x) = -1$ satisfies the condition for all odd $n$. Also, if $f$ satisfies the condition for $n$, then the only fixed points of $f$ can be either $0$, $1$, or if $n$ is odd also $-1$.

  • The squaring function $f(x) = x^2$ satisfies the condition for $n = 2$ and is essentially the only non-constant differentiable function to do so. Indeed,
    $$f(f(x)) = f(x)^2 implies f'(f(x)) f'(x) = 2 f(x) f'(x)$$
    so if we assume $f'(x) neq 0$ and let $y = f(x)$, we have that
    $$f'(y) = 2 y implies f(y) = y^2 + c$$
    and furthermore
    $$(y^2 + c)^2 + c = (y^2 + c)^2 implies c = 0.$$
    (Of course we could then consider also, e.g., $f(x) = x^2$ for $x ge 0$ and $f(x) = 0$ for $x < 0$.)

  • More generally, $f(x) = x^sqrt[n-1]n$ satisfies the condition for any $n > 2$. These functions are only defined on $mathbb R^+$: this is why I chose an interval $I$ instead of all $mathbb R$ as the domain, but I actually don't care if a solution is defined on any other non-trivial subset.

Are there any other solutions? If not, how can we prove so?




Remark: The question can be generalized to $n in mathbb Z$ if we assume $f$ to be invertible and denote by $f^-n$ either the $n$-th iterate of its compositional inverse or the $n$-th power of its multiplicative inverse (the cases $n = 0, 1$ are trivial). But this seems to be an even harder problem. For the case $n = -1$ see this question.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 2




    Isn't $f^n(x)$ sometimes used for the nth derivative ?
    – herb steinberg
    Aug 3 at 23:44






  • 3




    That would usually be with parentheses: $f^(n)(x)$.
    – Zachary
    Aug 4 at 0:59







  • 1




    I'll mention an identity. If we assume $f$ is invertible, then $f^n-1(y)=y^n$. Letting $y=z^p$ and exponentiating both sides by $q$ gives $$[f^n-1(z^p)]^q=z^npq=z^nqp=[f^n-1(z^q)]^p$$.
    – user254433
    Aug 4 at 1:52














up vote
30
down vote

favorite
13












Let $n$ be an integer greater than $1$. The notation $f^n$ is notoriously ambiguous: it means either the $n$-th iterate of $f$ or its $n$-th power.



I was wondering when the two interpretations are in fact the same. In other words, if we write $f^n(x)$ for $f(f(dotsb f(x) dotsb))$ and $f(x)^n$ for $f(x) cdot f(x) dotsb f(x)$:




For which functions $f colon I to mathbb R$ is $f^n(x) = f(x)^n$ for all $x in I$?




So far I have been able to show that:



  • The constant functions $f(x) = 0$ and $f(x) = 1$ satisfy the condition for all $n$ and $f(x) = -1$ satisfies the condition for all odd $n$. Also, if $f$ satisfies the condition for $n$, then the only fixed points of $f$ can be either $0$, $1$, or if $n$ is odd also $-1$.

  • The squaring function $f(x) = x^2$ satisfies the condition for $n = 2$ and is essentially the only non-constant differentiable function to do so. Indeed,
    $$f(f(x)) = f(x)^2 implies f'(f(x)) f'(x) = 2 f(x) f'(x)$$
    so if we assume $f'(x) neq 0$ and let $y = f(x)$, we have that
    $$f'(y) = 2 y implies f(y) = y^2 + c$$
    and furthermore
    $$(y^2 + c)^2 + c = (y^2 + c)^2 implies c = 0.$$
    (Of course we could then consider also, e.g., $f(x) = x^2$ for $x ge 0$ and $f(x) = 0$ for $x < 0$.)

  • More generally, $f(x) = x^sqrt[n-1]n$ satisfies the condition for any $n > 2$. These functions are only defined on $mathbb R^+$: this is why I chose an interval $I$ instead of all $mathbb R$ as the domain, but I actually don't care if a solution is defined on any other non-trivial subset.

Are there any other solutions? If not, how can we prove so?




Remark: The question can be generalized to $n in mathbb Z$ if we assume $f$ to be invertible and denote by $f^-n$ either the $n$-th iterate of its compositional inverse or the $n$-th power of its multiplicative inverse (the cases $n = 0, 1$ are trivial). But this seems to be an even harder problem. For the case $n = -1$ see this question.







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 2




    Isn't $f^n(x)$ sometimes used for the nth derivative ?
    – herb steinberg
    Aug 3 at 23:44






  • 3




    That would usually be with parentheses: $f^(n)(x)$.
    – Zachary
    Aug 4 at 0:59







  • 1




    I'll mention an identity. If we assume $f$ is invertible, then $f^n-1(y)=y^n$. Letting $y=z^p$ and exponentiating both sides by $q$ gives $$[f^n-1(z^p)]^q=z^npq=z^nqp=[f^n-1(z^q)]^p$$.
    – user254433
    Aug 4 at 1:52












up vote
30
down vote

favorite
13









up vote
30
down vote

favorite
13






13





Let $n$ be an integer greater than $1$. The notation $f^n$ is notoriously ambiguous: it means either the $n$-th iterate of $f$ or its $n$-th power.



I was wondering when the two interpretations are in fact the same. In other words, if we write $f^n(x)$ for $f(f(dotsb f(x) dotsb))$ and $f(x)^n$ for $f(x) cdot f(x) dotsb f(x)$:




For which functions $f colon I to mathbb R$ is $f^n(x) = f(x)^n$ for all $x in I$?




So far I have been able to show that:



  • The constant functions $f(x) = 0$ and $f(x) = 1$ satisfy the condition for all $n$ and $f(x) = -1$ satisfies the condition for all odd $n$. Also, if $f$ satisfies the condition for $n$, then the only fixed points of $f$ can be either $0$, $1$, or if $n$ is odd also $-1$.

  • The squaring function $f(x) = x^2$ satisfies the condition for $n = 2$ and is essentially the only non-constant differentiable function to do so. Indeed,
    $$f(f(x)) = f(x)^2 implies f'(f(x)) f'(x) = 2 f(x) f'(x)$$
    so if we assume $f'(x) neq 0$ and let $y = f(x)$, we have that
    $$f'(y) = 2 y implies f(y) = y^2 + c$$
    and furthermore
    $$(y^2 + c)^2 + c = (y^2 + c)^2 implies c = 0.$$
    (Of course we could then consider also, e.g., $f(x) = x^2$ for $x ge 0$ and $f(x) = 0$ for $x < 0$.)

  • More generally, $f(x) = x^sqrt[n-1]n$ satisfies the condition for any $n > 2$. These functions are only defined on $mathbb R^+$: this is why I chose an interval $I$ instead of all $mathbb R$ as the domain, but I actually don't care if a solution is defined on any other non-trivial subset.

Are there any other solutions? If not, how can we prove so?




Remark: The question can be generalized to $n in mathbb Z$ if we assume $f$ to be invertible and denote by $f^-n$ either the $n$-th iterate of its compositional inverse or the $n$-th power of its multiplicative inverse (the cases $n = 0, 1$ are trivial). But this seems to be an even harder problem. For the case $n = -1$ see this question.







share|cite|improve this question













Let $n$ be an integer greater than $1$. The notation $f^n$ is notoriously ambiguous: it means either the $n$-th iterate of $f$ or its $n$-th power.



I was wondering when the two interpretations are in fact the same. In other words, if we write $f^n(x)$ for $f(f(dotsb f(x) dotsb))$ and $f(x)^n$ for $f(x) cdot f(x) dotsb f(x)$:




For which functions $f colon I to mathbb R$ is $f^n(x) = f(x)^n$ for all $x in I$?




So far I have been able to show that:



  • The constant functions $f(x) = 0$ and $f(x) = 1$ satisfy the condition for all $n$ and $f(x) = -1$ satisfies the condition for all odd $n$. Also, if $f$ satisfies the condition for $n$, then the only fixed points of $f$ can be either $0$, $1$, or if $n$ is odd also $-1$.

  • The squaring function $f(x) = x^2$ satisfies the condition for $n = 2$ and is essentially the only non-constant differentiable function to do so. Indeed,
    $$f(f(x)) = f(x)^2 implies f'(f(x)) f'(x) = 2 f(x) f'(x)$$
    so if we assume $f'(x) neq 0$ and let $y = f(x)$, we have that
    $$f'(y) = 2 y implies f(y) = y^2 + c$$
    and furthermore
    $$(y^2 + c)^2 + c = (y^2 + c)^2 implies c = 0.$$
    (Of course we could then consider also, e.g., $f(x) = x^2$ for $x ge 0$ and $f(x) = 0$ for $x < 0$.)

  • More generally, $f(x) = x^sqrt[n-1]n$ satisfies the condition for any $n > 2$. These functions are only defined on $mathbb R^+$: this is why I chose an interval $I$ instead of all $mathbb R$ as the domain, but I actually don't care if a solution is defined on any other non-trivial subset.

Are there any other solutions? If not, how can we prove so?




Remark: The question can be generalized to $n in mathbb Z$ if we assume $f$ to be invertible and denote by $f^-n$ either the $n$-th iterate of its compositional inverse or the $n$-th power of its multiplicative inverse (the cases $n = 0, 1$ are trivial). But this seems to be an even harder problem. For the case $n = -1$ see this question.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited yesterday
























asked Aug 3 at 19:34









Luca Bressan

3,7172835




3,7172835







  • 2




    Isn't $f^n(x)$ sometimes used for the nth derivative ?
    – herb steinberg
    Aug 3 at 23:44






  • 3




    That would usually be with parentheses: $f^(n)(x)$.
    – Zachary
    Aug 4 at 0:59







  • 1




    I'll mention an identity. If we assume $f$ is invertible, then $f^n-1(y)=y^n$. Letting $y=z^p$ and exponentiating both sides by $q$ gives $$[f^n-1(z^p)]^q=z^npq=z^nqp=[f^n-1(z^q)]^p$$.
    – user254433
    Aug 4 at 1:52












  • 2




    Isn't $f^n(x)$ sometimes used for the nth derivative ?
    – herb steinberg
    Aug 3 at 23:44






  • 3




    That would usually be with parentheses: $f^(n)(x)$.
    – Zachary
    Aug 4 at 0:59







  • 1




    I'll mention an identity. If we assume $f$ is invertible, then $f^n-1(y)=y^n$. Letting $y=z^p$ and exponentiating both sides by $q$ gives $$[f^n-1(z^p)]^q=z^npq=z^nqp=[f^n-1(z^q)]^p$$.
    – user254433
    Aug 4 at 1:52







2




2




Isn't $f^n(x)$ sometimes used for the nth derivative ?
– herb steinberg
Aug 3 at 23:44




Isn't $f^n(x)$ sometimes used for the nth derivative ?
– herb steinberg
Aug 3 at 23:44




3




3




That would usually be with parentheses: $f^(n)(x)$.
– Zachary
Aug 4 at 0:59





That would usually be with parentheses: $f^(n)(x)$.
– Zachary
Aug 4 at 0:59





1




1




I'll mention an identity. If we assume $f$ is invertible, then $f^n-1(y)=y^n$. Letting $y=z^p$ and exponentiating both sides by $q$ gives $$[f^n-1(z^p)]^q=z^npq=z^nqp=[f^n-1(z^q)]^p$$.
– user254433
Aug 4 at 1:52




I'll mention an identity. If we assume $f$ is invertible, then $f^n-1(y)=y^n$. Letting $y=z^p$ and exponentiating both sides by $q$ gives $$[f^n-1(z^p)]^q=z^npq=z^nqp=[f^n-1(z^q)]^p$$.
– user254433
Aug 4 at 1:52










1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
9
down vote













Something non-constant and discontinuous everywhere:



$$f(x) = left{beginarrayll
x^2 & textif x text is an integer \
lceil x rceil & textif x text is rational but not an integer\
lfloor x rfloor & textif x text is irrational
endarray right.$$



seems to satisfy $f(f(x))=f(x)cdot f(x)$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • should it be $f(x)$ not $f(m)$?
    – user254433
    Aug 4 at 0:54










  • @user254433 Yes it should - and now does - thank you
    – Henry
    2 days ago






  • 4




    I like this example because together with user254433's comment it suggests a way to make a new function $g$ out of a known invertible one $f$. First we need to find a subset $A$ such that $f(A) subseteq A$. Then we need to find a subset $B$ disjoint from $A$ and a function $g colon B to A$. Finally we extend $g$ to $A cup B$ by letting $g(x) = f(x)$ for $x in A$. It follows that $g^n(x) = g^n-1(g(x)) = f^n-1(g(x)) = g(x)^n$ for all $x in A cup B$.
    – Luca Bressan
    2 days ago










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

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active

oldest

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active

oldest

votes








up vote
9
down vote













Something non-constant and discontinuous everywhere:



$$f(x) = left{beginarrayll
x^2 & textif x text is an integer \
lceil x rceil & textif x text is rational but not an integer\
lfloor x rfloor & textif x text is irrational
endarray right.$$



seems to satisfy $f(f(x))=f(x)cdot f(x)$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • should it be $f(x)$ not $f(m)$?
    – user254433
    Aug 4 at 0:54










  • @user254433 Yes it should - and now does - thank you
    – Henry
    2 days ago






  • 4




    I like this example because together with user254433's comment it suggests a way to make a new function $g$ out of a known invertible one $f$. First we need to find a subset $A$ such that $f(A) subseteq A$. Then we need to find a subset $B$ disjoint from $A$ and a function $g colon B to A$. Finally we extend $g$ to $A cup B$ by letting $g(x) = f(x)$ for $x in A$. It follows that $g^n(x) = g^n-1(g(x)) = f^n-1(g(x)) = g(x)^n$ for all $x in A cup B$.
    – Luca Bressan
    2 days ago














up vote
9
down vote













Something non-constant and discontinuous everywhere:



$$f(x) = left{beginarrayll
x^2 & textif x text is an integer \
lceil x rceil & textif x text is rational but not an integer\
lfloor x rfloor & textif x text is irrational
endarray right.$$



seems to satisfy $f(f(x))=f(x)cdot f(x)$






share|cite|improve this answer























  • should it be $f(x)$ not $f(m)$?
    – user254433
    Aug 4 at 0:54










  • @user254433 Yes it should - and now does - thank you
    – Henry
    2 days ago






  • 4




    I like this example because together with user254433's comment it suggests a way to make a new function $g$ out of a known invertible one $f$. First we need to find a subset $A$ such that $f(A) subseteq A$. Then we need to find a subset $B$ disjoint from $A$ and a function $g colon B to A$. Finally we extend $g$ to $A cup B$ by letting $g(x) = f(x)$ for $x in A$. It follows that $g^n(x) = g^n-1(g(x)) = f^n-1(g(x)) = g(x)^n$ for all $x in A cup B$.
    – Luca Bressan
    2 days ago












up vote
9
down vote










up vote
9
down vote









Something non-constant and discontinuous everywhere:



$$f(x) = left{beginarrayll
x^2 & textif x text is an integer \
lceil x rceil & textif x text is rational but not an integer\
lfloor x rfloor & textif x text is irrational
endarray right.$$



seems to satisfy $f(f(x))=f(x)cdot f(x)$






share|cite|improve this answer















Something non-constant and discontinuous everywhere:



$$f(x) = left{beginarrayll
x^2 & textif x text is an integer \
lceil x rceil & textif x text is rational but not an integer\
lfloor x rfloor & textif x text is irrational
endarray right.$$



seems to satisfy $f(f(x))=f(x)cdot f(x)$







share|cite|improve this answer















share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer








edited 2 days ago


























answered Aug 3 at 20:53









Henry

92.6k469146




92.6k469146











  • should it be $f(x)$ not $f(m)$?
    – user254433
    Aug 4 at 0:54










  • @user254433 Yes it should - and now does - thank you
    – Henry
    2 days ago






  • 4




    I like this example because together with user254433's comment it suggests a way to make a new function $g$ out of a known invertible one $f$. First we need to find a subset $A$ such that $f(A) subseteq A$. Then we need to find a subset $B$ disjoint from $A$ and a function $g colon B to A$. Finally we extend $g$ to $A cup B$ by letting $g(x) = f(x)$ for $x in A$. It follows that $g^n(x) = g^n-1(g(x)) = f^n-1(g(x)) = g(x)^n$ for all $x in A cup B$.
    – Luca Bressan
    2 days ago
















  • should it be $f(x)$ not $f(m)$?
    – user254433
    Aug 4 at 0:54










  • @user254433 Yes it should - and now does - thank you
    – Henry
    2 days ago






  • 4




    I like this example because together with user254433's comment it suggests a way to make a new function $g$ out of a known invertible one $f$. First we need to find a subset $A$ such that $f(A) subseteq A$. Then we need to find a subset $B$ disjoint from $A$ and a function $g colon B to A$. Finally we extend $g$ to $A cup B$ by letting $g(x) = f(x)$ for $x in A$. It follows that $g^n(x) = g^n-1(g(x)) = f^n-1(g(x)) = g(x)^n$ for all $x in A cup B$.
    – Luca Bressan
    2 days ago















should it be $f(x)$ not $f(m)$?
– user254433
Aug 4 at 0:54




should it be $f(x)$ not $f(m)$?
– user254433
Aug 4 at 0:54












@user254433 Yes it should - and now does - thank you
– Henry
2 days ago




@user254433 Yes it should - and now does - thank you
– Henry
2 days ago




4




4




I like this example because together with user254433's comment it suggests a way to make a new function $g$ out of a known invertible one $f$. First we need to find a subset $A$ such that $f(A) subseteq A$. Then we need to find a subset $B$ disjoint from $A$ and a function $g colon B to A$. Finally we extend $g$ to $A cup B$ by letting $g(x) = f(x)$ for $x in A$. It follows that $g^n(x) = g^n-1(g(x)) = f^n-1(g(x)) = g(x)^n$ for all $x in A cup B$.
– Luca Bressan
2 days ago




I like this example because together with user254433's comment it suggests a way to make a new function $g$ out of a known invertible one $f$. First we need to find a subset $A$ such that $f(A) subseteq A$. Then we need to find a subset $B$ disjoint from $A$ and a function $g colon B to A$. Finally we extend $g$ to $A cup B$ by letting $g(x) = f(x)$ for $x in A$. It follows that $g^n(x) = g^n-1(g(x)) = f^n-1(g(x)) = g(x)^n$ for all $x in A cup B$.
– Luca Bressan
2 days ago












 

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