Can $C^*$ algebra $A$ be decomposed?

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If $A$ is a $C^*$ algebra ,$B$ is a finite dimensional $C^*$ subalgebra of $A$.Does there exists a $*$ subalgebra of $C$ such that $A=B oplus C$?







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up vote
-1
down vote

favorite












If $A$ is a $C^*$ algebra ,$B$ is a finite dimensional $C^*$ subalgebra of $A$.Does there exists a $*$ subalgebra of $C$ such that $A=B oplus C$?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • What am I, a goldfish?
    – Kenny Lau
    Jul 22 at 8:37






  • 1




    The joke is not funny at all!
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 9:00










  • It's not a joke, but rather an accusation that you posted the same question twice and hoped that nobody would notice.
    – Kenny Lau
    Jul 22 at 9:01










  • It's very impolite to call someone a goldfish
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 9:20










  • I was calling myself.
    – Kenny Lau
    Jul 22 at 9:27












up vote
-1
down vote

favorite









up vote
-1
down vote

favorite











If $A$ is a $C^*$ algebra ,$B$ is a finite dimensional $C^*$ subalgebra of $A$.Does there exists a $*$ subalgebra of $C$ such that $A=B oplus C$?







share|cite|improve this question













If $A$ is a $C^*$ algebra ,$B$ is a finite dimensional $C^*$ subalgebra of $A$.Does there exists a $*$ subalgebra of $C$ such that $A=B oplus C$?









share|cite|improve this question












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edited Jul 22 at 8:47
























asked Jul 22 at 8:35









mathrookie

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437211











  • What am I, a goldfish?
    – Kenny Lau
    Jul 22 at 8:37






  • 1




    The joke is not funny at all!
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 9:00










  • It's not a joke, but rather an accusation that you posted the same question twice and hoped that nobody would notice.
    – Kenny Lau
    Jul 22 at 9:01










  • It's very impolite to call someone a goldfish
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 9:20










  • I was calling myself.
    – Kenny Lau
    Jul 22 at 9:27
















  • What am I, a goldfish?
    – Kenny Lau
    Jul 22 at 8:37






  • 1




    The joke is not funny at all!
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 9:00










  • It's not a joke, but rather an accusation that you posted the same question twice and hoped that nobody would notice.
    – Kenny Lau
    Jul 22 at 9:01










  • It's very impolite to call someone a goldfish
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 9:20










  • I was calling myself.
    – Kenny Lau
    Jul 22 at 9:27















What am I, a goldfish?
– Kenny Lau
Jul 22 at 8:37




What am I, a goldfish?
– Kenny Lau
Jul 22 at 8:37




1




1




The joke is not funny at all!
– mathrookie
Jul 22 at 9:00




The joke is not funny at all!
– mathrookie
Jul 22 at 9:00












It's not a joke, but rather an accusation that you posted the same question twice and hoped that nobody would notice.
– Kenny Lau
Jul 22 at 9:01




It's not a joke, but rather an accusation that you posted the same question twice and hoped that nobody would notice.
– Kenny Lau
Jul 22 at 9:01












It's very impolite to call someone a goldfish
– mathrookie
Jul 22 at 9:20




It's very impolite to call someone a goldfish
– mathrookie
Jul 22 at 9:20












I was calling myself.
– Kenny Lau
Jul 22 at 9:27




I was calling myself.
– Kenny Lau
Jul 22 at 9:27










1 Answer
1






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1
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accepted










No. In such an algebra $A$, both $B$ and $C$ would be nontrivial ideals. So if you take any simple C$^*$-algebra that has finite-dimensional subalgebras, your decomposition does not exist.



Such an example could be $A=$UHF$(2^infty)$, which has lots of projections. Take a nontrivial projection $pin A$, and put $B=mathbb C, p$. Then $B$ is one-dimensional but not an ideal, and thus the decomposition does not exit.



Any other simple real rank zero example would do.






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  • Is there a splitting lemma for $C^*$ algebra?If $I$ is finite dimensional ideal generated by projections,Can we conclude that $A=I oplus A/I$?
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 18:27










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1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes








1 Answer
1






active

oldest

votes









active

oldest

votes






active

oldest

votes








up vote
1
down vote



accepted










No. In such an algebra $A$, both $B$ and $C$ would be nontrivial ideals. So if you take any simple C$^*$-algebra that has finite-dimensional subalgebras, your decomposition does not exist.



Such an example could be $A=$UHF$(2^infty)$, which has lots of projections. Take a nontrivial projection $pin A$, and put $B=mathbb C, p$. Then $B$ is one-dimensional but not an ideal, and thus the decomposition does not exit.



Any other simple real rank zero example would do.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Is there a splitting lemma for $C^*$ algebra?If $I$ is finite dimensional ideal generated by projections,Can we conclude that $A=I oplus A/I$?
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 18:27














up vote
1
down vote



accepted










No. In such an algebra $A$, both $B$ and $C$ would be nontrivial ideals. So if you take any simple C$^*$-algebra that has finite-dimensional subalgebras, your decomposition does not exist.



Such an example could be $A=$UHF$(2^infty)$, which has lots of projections. Take a nontrivial projection $pin A$, and put $B=mathbb C, p$. Then $B$ is one-dimensional but not an ideal, and thus the decomposition does not exit.



Any other simple real rank zero example would do.






share|cite|improve this answer





















  • Is there a splitting lemma for $C^*$ algebra?If $I$ is finite dimensional ideal generated by projections,Can we conclude that $A=I oplus A/I$?
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 18:27












up vote
1
down vote



accepted







up vote
1
down vote



accepted






No. In such an algebra $A$, both $B$ and $C$ would be nontrivial ideals. So if you take any simple C$^*$-algebra that has finite-dimensional subalgebras, your decomposition does not exist.



Such an example could be $A=$UHF$(2^infty)$, which has lots of projections. Take a nontrivial projection $pin A$, and put $B=mathbb C, p$. Then $B$ is one-dimensional but not an ideal, and thus the decomposition does not exit.



Any other simple real rank zero example would do.






share|cite|improve this answer













No. In such an algebra $A$, both $B$ and $C$ would be nontrivial ideals. So if you take any simple C$^*$-algebra that has finite-dimensional subalgebras, your decomposition does not exist.



Such an example could be $A=$UHF$(2^infty)$, which has lots of projections. Take a nontrivial projection $pin A$, and put $B=mathbb C, p$. Then $B$ is one-dimensional but not an ideal, and thus the decomposition does not exit.



Any other simple real rank zero example would do.







share|cite|improve this answer













share|cite|improve this answer



share|cite|improve this answer











answered Jul 22 at 15:15









Martin Argerami

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  • Is there a splitting lemma for $C^*$ algebra?If $I$ is finite dimensional ideal generated by projections,Can we conclude that $A=I oplus A/I$?
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 18:27
















  • Is there a splitting lemma for $C^*$ algebra?If $I$ is finite dimensional ideal generated by projections,Can we conclude that $A=I oplus A/I$?
    – mathrookie
    Jul 22 at 18:27















Is there a splitting lemma for $C^*$ algebra?If $I$ is finite dimensional ideal generated by projections,Can we conclude that $A=I oplus A/I$?
– mathrookie
Jul 22 at 18:27




Is there a splitting lemma for $C^*$ algebra?If $I$ is finite dimensional ideal generated by projections,Can we conclude that $A=I oplus A/I$?
– mathrookie
Jul 22 at 18:27












 

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