Continuity proof for exponential

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Show that $f(x) = e^x$ is continuous using the epsilon-delta definition.



I can't seem to write down anything meaningful...







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  • 1




    What is known about $e^x$, and how is it defined?
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:33










  • I can see that is is continuous geometrically of course, but not sure how to get this formally
    – kiwifruit
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:34






  • 1




    How to prove it formally depends on what you already know, and which definition you have. The power series definition, $$e^x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!,?$$ Do you have the addition theorem, $e^x+y = e^xcdot e^y$?
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:36






  • 1




    Apply the definition of continuity everywhere: for all $c$ and for all $epsilon > 0$, there exists $delta > 0$ such that if $|x - c| < delta$, then $|f(x) - f(c)| < epsilon$. So since $e^x$ is defined everywhere on $mathbbR$, let $c in mathbbR$ and let $epsilon > 0$. Can you produce a corresponding $delta > 0$?
    – ml0105
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:38






  • 2




    $lvert e^x-e^crvert = e^ccdotlvert e^x-c-1rvert$. That reduces the problem to showing continuity in $0$.
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:42














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












Show that $f(x) = e^x$ is continuous using the epsilon-delta definition.



I can't seem to write down anything meaningful...







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    What is known about $e^x$, and how is it defined?
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:33










  • I can see that is is continuous geometrically of course, but not sure how to get this formally
    – kiwifruit
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:34






  • 1




    How to prove it formally depends on what you already know, and which definition you have. The power series definition, $$e^x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!,?$$ Do you have the addition theorem, $e^x+y = e^xcdot e^y$?
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:36






  • 1




    Apply the definition of continuity everywhere: for all $c$ and for all $epsilon > 0$, there exists $delta > 0$ such that if $|x - c| < delta$, then $|f(x) - f(c)| < epsilon$. So since $e^x$ is defined everywhere on $mathbbR$, let $c in mathbbR$ and let $epsilon > 0$. Can you produce a corresponding $delta > 0$?
    – ml0105
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:38






  • 2




    $lvert e^x-e^crvert = e^ccdotlvert e^x-c-1rvert$. That reduces the problem to showing continuity in $0$.
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:42












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











Show that $f(x) = e^x$ is continuous using the epsilon-delta definition.



I can't seem to write down anything meaningful...







share|cite|improve this question













Show that $f(x) = e^x$ is continuous using the epsilon-delta definition.



I can't seem to write down anything meaningful...









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Mar 23 '14 at 7:10









Martin Sleziak

43.5k6113259




43.5k6113259









asked Mar 23 '14 at 0:32









kiwifruit

299319




299319







  • 1




    What is known about $e^x$, and how is it defined?
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:33










  • I can see that is is continuous geometrically of course, but not sure how to get this formally
    – kiwifruit
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:34






  • 1




    How to prove it formally depends on what you already know, and which definition you have. The power series definition, $$e^x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!,?$$ Do you have the addition theorem, $e^x+y = e^xcdot e^y$?
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:36






  • 1




    Apply the definition of continuity everywhere: for all $c$ and for all $epsilon > 0$, there exists $delta > 0$ such that if $|x - c| < delta$, then $|f(x) - f(c)| < epsilon$. So since $e^x$ is defined everywhere on $mathbbR$, let $c in mathbbR$ and let $epsilon > 0$. Can you produce a corresponding $delta > 0$?
    – ml0105
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:38






  • 2




    $lvert e^x-e^crvert = e^ccdotlvert e^x-c-1rvert$. That reduces the problem to showing continuity in $0$.
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:42












  • 1




    What is known about $e^x$, and how is it defined?
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:33










  • I can see that is is continuous geometrically of course, but not sure how to get this formally
    – kiwifruit
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:34






  • 1




    How to prove it formally depends on what you already know, and which definition you have. The power series definition, $$e^x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!,?$$ Do you have the addition theorem, $e^x+y = e^xcdot e^y$?
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:36






  • 1




    Apply the definition of continuity everywhere: for all $c$ and for all $epsilon > 0$, there exists $delta > 0$ such that if $|x - c| < delta$, then $|f(x) - f(c)| < epsilon$. So since $e^x$ is defined everywhere on $mathbbR$, let $c in mathbbR$ and let $epsilon > 0$. Can you produce a corresponding $delta > 0$?
    – ml0105
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:38






  • 2




    $lvert e^x-e^crvert = e^ccdotlvert e^x-c-1rvert$. That reduces the problem to showing continuity in $0$.
    – Daniel Fischer♦
    Mar 23 '14 at 0:42







1




1




What is known about $e^x$, and how is it defined?
– Daniel Fischer♦
Mar 23 '14 at 0:33




What is known about $e^x$, and how is it defined?
– Daniel Fischer♦
Mar 23 '14 at 0:33












I can see that is is continuous geometrically of course, but not sure how to get this formally
– kiwifruit
Mar 23 '14 at 0:34




I can see that is is continuous geometrically of course, but not sure how to get this formally
– kiwifruit
Mar 23 '14 at 0:34




1




1




How to prove it formally depends on what you already know, and which definition you have. The power series definition, $$e^x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!,?$$ Do you have the addition theorem, $e^x+y = e^xcdot e^y$?
– Daniel Fischer♦
Mar 23 '14 at 0:36




How to prove it formally depends on what you already know, and which definition you have. The power series definition, $$e^x = sum_n=0^infty fracx^nn!,?$$ Do you have the addition theorem, $e^x+y = e^xcdot e^y$?
– Daniel Fischer♦
Mar 23 '14 at 0:36




1




1




Apply the definition of continuity everywhere: for all $c$ and for all $epsilon > 0$, there exists $delta > 0$ such that if $|x - c| < delta$, then $|f(x) - f(c)| < epsilon$. So since $e^x$ is defined everywhere on $mathbbR$, let $c in mathbbR$ and let $epsilon > 0$. Can you produce a corresponding $delta > 0$?
– ml0105
Mar 23 '14 at 0:38




Apply the definition of continuity everywhere: for all $c$ and for all $epsilon > 0$, there exists $delta > 0$ such that if $|x - c| < delta$, then $|f(x) - f(c)| < epsilon$. So since $e^x$ is defined everywhere on $mathbbR$, let $c in mathbbR$ and let $epsilon > 0$. Can you produce a corresponding $delta > 0$?
– ml0105
Mar 23 '14 at 0:38




2




2




$lvert e^x-e^crvert = e^ccdotlvert e^x-c-1rvert$. That reduces the problem to showing continuity in $0$.
– Daniel Fischer♦
Mar 23 '14 at 0:42




$lvert e^x-e^crvert = e^ccdotlvert e^x-c-1rvert$. That reduces the problem to showing continuity in $0$.
– Daniel Fischer♦
Mar 23 '14 at 0:42










3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
2
down vote



accepted










Almost identical questions have been answered $n + 1$ times on this site. The proof is trivial. I will present a slight variation of the standard proof.



Recall that, by definition, $f(x)$ is continuous on $mathbbR$ if and only if
$$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$



Combining a well-worn result
$$e^x = lim_n to inftyleft(1 + fracxnright)^n,$$
and the fact that, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
$$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon),$$
proves that $e^x$ is continuous.



Edit: To summarize, we know that the sequence
$$s_n = left(1 + fracxnright)^n$$
converges to $e^x$ as $n to infty$. We see that
$$lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty left(1 + fracxnright)^n = lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0 = lim_n to infty left(1 + fracx_0nright)^n = lim_n to infty lim_x to x_0 left(1 + fracxnright)^n.$$
Moreover, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
$$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon).$$
Yet, since $x_0$ is arbitrary, we have
$$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$
Thus, $e^x$ is continuous for all $x$.






share|cite|improve this answer























  • Who downvoted my answer? Please elaborate.
    – glebovg
    Mar 23 '14 at 1:05






  • 2




    I didn't downvote you, but I think I'm missing something. Using your outline, one would need to show that $lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0$, or $lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty (1 + fracxn)^n = lim_n to infty (1 + fracx_0n)^n$, which amounts to justifying interchanging the limits, no?
    – anonymous
    Mar 23 '14 at 4:39










  • @anonymous Yes. I edited my answer to address your comment.
    – glebovg
    Mar 23 '14 at 7:06











  • Oh, ha, I see. Cute!
    – anonymous
    Mar 23 '14 at 15:40

















up vote
3
down vote













Let $a$ be a positive real number. Then the function $f: mathbbRto mathbbR$ defined by $xmapsto a^x$ is continuous.



Proof:



1) First we prove the continuous at $0$.



We may assume that $a>1$. Let $varepsilon>0$ be arbitrary. Since $a^1/kto 1$ and $a^-1/kto 1$ as $kto infty$, we choose $K$ such that both are $varepsilon$-close to $1$. Let $delta=1/K$, so for $|x|<1/K$ we have



beginalign-1/K<x<1/K\a^-1/K<a^x<a^1/K endalign



which proves that $a^x$ is $varepsilon$-close to $1$ as desired (the case $ale1$ is handled similarly just with the inequality in the other direction).



2) To conclude we prove the continuity in the general case.



Let $x_0in mathbbR$, we have to show that $lim_xto x_0a^x=a^x_0$. Since $x-x_0to 0$ as $xto x_0$, then $a^x-x_0to1$ by ($1$) and thus



$$lim_xto x_0a^x=lim_xto x_0a^x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0lim_xto x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0$$



as was to be shown.



Since $ein mathbbR^>0$, thus $e^x$ is continuous.






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    up vote
    2
    down vote













    Start with $|x-c|<delta$.



    Let's take a look at the case that $xge c$.
    Then:
    $$x-c <delta$$
    $$x < c+ delta$$
    $$e^x < e^c+delta$$
    $$0 le e^x-e^c < e^c(e^delta - 1)$$
    Let's pick $delta$ such that $varepsilon = e^c(e^delta - 1)$.
    Then:
    $$delta = ln(1+varepsilon e^-c)$$
    Repeat for $x<c$.



    In other words, you are able to find a $delta$ for any $varepsilon>0$.



    Qed.






    share|cite|improve this answer





















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      Almost identical questions have been answered $n + 1$ times on this site. The proof is trivial. I will present a slight variation of the standard proof.



      Recall that, by definition, $f(x)$ is continuous on $mathbbR$ if and only if
      $$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$



      Combining a well-worn result
      $$e^x = lim_n to inftyleft(1 + fracxnright)^n,$$
      and the fact that, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
      $$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon),$$
      proves that $e^x$ is continuous.



      Edit: To summarize, we know that the sequence
      $$s_n = left(1 + fracxnright)^n$$
      converges to $e^x$ as $n to infty$. We see that
      $$lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty left(1 + fracxnright)^n = lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0 = lim_n to infty left(1 + fracx_0nright)^n = lim_n to infty lim_x to x_0 left(1 + fracxnright)^n.$$
      Moreover, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
      $$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon).$$
      Yet, since $x_0$ is arbitrary, we have
      $$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$
      Thus, $e^x$ is continuous for all $x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • Who downvoted my answer? Please elaborate.
        – glebovg
        Mar 23 '14 at 1:05






      • 2




        I didn't downvote you, but I think I'm missing something. Using your outline, one would need to show that $lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0$, or $lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty (1 + fracxn)^n = lim_n to infty (1 + fracx_0n)^n$, which amounts to justifying interchanging the limits, no?
        – anonymous
        Mar 23 '14 at 4:39










      • @anonymous Yes. I edited my answer to address your comment.
        – glebovg
        Mar 23 '14 at 7:06











      • Oh, ha, I see. Cute!
        – anonymous
        Mar 23 '14 at 15:40














      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted










      Almost identical questions have been answered $n + 1$ times on this site. The proof is trivial. I will present a slight variation of the standard proof.



      Recall that, by definition, $f(x)$ is continuous on $mathbbR$ if and only if
      $$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$



      Combining a well-worn result
      $$e^x = lim_n to inftyleft(1 + fracxnright)^n,$$
      and the fact that, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
      $$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon),$$
      proves that $e^x$ is continuous.



      Edit: To summarize, we know that the sequence
      $$s_n = left(1 + fracxnright)^n$$
      converges to $e^x$ as $n to infty$. We see that
      $$lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty left(1 + fracxnright)^n = lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0 = lim_n to infty left(1 + fracx_0nright)^n = lim_n to infty lim_x to x_0 left(1 + fracxnright)^n.$$
      Moreover, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
      $$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon).$$
      Yet, since $x_0$ is arbitrary, we have
      $$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$
      Thus, $e^x$ is continuous for all $x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer























      • Who downvoted my answer? Please elaborate.
        – glebovg
        Mar 23 '14 at 1:05






      • 2




        I didn't downvote you, but I think I'm missing something. Using your outline, one would need to show that $lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0$, or $lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty (1 + fracxn)^n = lim_n to infty (1 + fracx_0n)^n$, which amounts to justifying interchanging the limits, no?
        – anonymous
        Mar 23 '14 at 4:39










      • @anonymous Yes. I edited my answer to address your comment.
        – glebovg
        Mar 23 '14 at 7:06











      • Oh, ha, I see. Cute!
        – anonymous
        Mar 23 '14 at 15:40












      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      2
      down vote



      accepted






      Almost identical questions have been answered $n + 1$ times on this site. The proof is trivial. I will present a slight variation of the standard proof.



      Recall that, by definition, $f(x)$ is continuous on $mathbbR$ if and only if
      $$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$



      Combining a well-worn result
      $$e^x = lim_n to inftyleft(1 + fracxnright)^n,$$
      and the fact that, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
      $$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon),$$
      proves that $e^x$ is continuous.



      Edit: To summarize, we know that the sequence
      $$s_n = left(1 + fracxnright)^n$$
      converges to $e^x$ as $n to infty$. We see that
      $$lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty left(1 + fracxnright)^n = lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0 = lim_n to infty left(1 + fracx_0nright)^n = lim_n to infty lim_x to x_0 left(1 + fracxnright)^n.$$
      Moreover, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
      $$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon).$$
      Yet, since $x_0$ is arbitrary, we have
      $$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$
      Thus, $e^x$ is continuous for all $x$.






      share|cite|improve this answer















      Almost identical questions have been answered $n + 1$ times on this site. The proof is trivial. I will present a slight variation of the standard proof.



      Recall that, by definition, $f(x)$ is continuous on $mathbbR$ if and only if
      $$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$



      Combining a well-worn result
      $$e^x = lim_n to inftyleft(1 + fracxnright)^n,$$
      and the fact that, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
      $$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon),$$
      proves that $e^x$ is continuous.



      Edit: To summarize, we know that the sequence
      $$s_n = left(1 + fracxnright)^n$$
      converges to $e^x$ as $n to infty$. We see that
      $$lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty left(1 + fracxnright)^n = lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0 = lim_n to infty left(1 + fracx_0nright)^n = lim_n to infty lim_x to x_0 left(1 + fracxnright)^n.$$
      Moreover, by definition, $lim_x to x_0 f(x) = L$ if and only if
      $$(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - L| < varepsilon).$$
      Yet, since $x_0$ is arbitrary, we have
      $$(forall x_0 in mathbbR)(forall varepsilon > 0)(exists delta > 0)(forall x in mathbbR)(0 < |x - x_0| < delta implies |f(x) - f(x_0)| < varepsilon).$$
      Thus, $e^x$ is continuous for all $x$.







      share|cite|improve this answer















      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Mar 23 '14 at 7:20


























      answered Mar 23 '14 at 0:50









      glebovg

      6,85222044




      6,85222044











      • Who downvoted my answer? Please elaborate.
        – glebovg
        Mar 23 '14 at 1:05






      • 2




        I didn't downvote you, but I think I'm missing something. Using your outline, one would need to show that $lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0$, or $lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty (1 + fracxn)^n = lim_n to infty (1 + fracx_0n)^n$, which amounts to justifying interchanging the limits, no?
        – anonymous
        Mar 23 '14 at 4:39










      • @anonymous Yes. I edited my answer to address your comment.
        – glebovg
        Mar 23 '14 at 7:06











      • Oh, ha, I see. Cute!
        – anonymous
        Mar 23 '14 at 15:40
















      • Who downvoted my answer? Please elaborate.
        – glebovg
        Mar 23 '14 at 1:05






      • 2




        I didn't downvote you, but I think I'm missing something. Using your outline, one would need to show that $lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0$, or $lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty (1 + fracxn)^n = lim_n to infty (1 + fracx_0n)^n$, which amounts to justifying interchanging the limits, no?
        – anonymous
        Mar 23 '14 at 4:39










      • @anonymous Yes. I edited my answer to address your comment.
        – glebovg
        Mar 23 '14 at 7:06











      • Oh, ha, I see. Cute!
        – anonymous
        Mar 23 '14 at 15:40















      Who downvoted my answer? Please elaborate.
      – glebovg
      Mar 23 '14 at 1:05




      Who downvoted my answer? Please elaborate.
      – glebovg
      Mar 23 '14 at 1:05




      2




      2




      I didn't downvote you, but I think I'm missing something. Using your outline, one would need to show that $lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0$, or $lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty (1 + fracxn)^n = lim_n to infty (1 + fracx_0n)^n$, which amounts to justifying interchanging the limits, no?
      – anonymous
      Mar 23 '14 at 4:39




      I didn't downvote you, but I think I'm missing something. Using your outline, one would need to show that $lim_x to x_0 e^x = e^x_0$, or $lim_x to x_0 lim_n to infty (1 + fracxn)^n = lim_n to infty (1 + fracx_0n)^n$, which amounts to justifying interchanging the limits, no?
      – anonymous
      Mar 23 '14 at 4:39












      @anonymous Yes. I edited my answer to address your comment.
      – glebovg
      Mar 23 '14 at 7:06





      @anonymous Yes. I edited my answer to address your comment.
      – glebovg
      Mar 23 '14 at 7:06













      Oh, ha, I see. Cute!
      – anonymous
      Mar 23 '14 at 15:40




      Oh, ha, I see. Cute!
      – anonymous
      Mar 23 '14 at 15:40










      up vote
      3
      down vote













      Let $a$ be a positive real number. Then the function $f: mathbbRto mathbbR$ defined by $xmapsto a^x$ is continuous.



      Proof:



      1) First we prove the continuous at $0$.



      We may assume that $a>1$. Let $varepsilon>0$ be arbitrary. Since $a^1/kto 1$ and $a^-1/kto 1$ as $kto infty$, we choose $K$ such that both are $varepsilon$-close to $1$. Let $delta=1/K$, so for $|x|<1/K$ we have



      beginalign-1/K<x<1/K\a^-1/K<a^x<a^1/K endalign



      which proves that $a^x$ is $varepsilon$-close to $1$ as desired (the case $ale1$ is handled similarly just with the inequality in the other direction).



      2) To conclude we prove the continuity in the general case.



      Let $x_0in mathbbR$, we have to show that $lim_xto x_0a^x=a^x_0$. Since $x-x_0to 0$ as $xto x_0$, then $a^x-x_0to1$ by ($1$) and thus



      $$lim_xto x_0a^x=lim_xto x_0a^x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0lim_xto x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0$$



      as was to be shown.



      Since $ein mathbbR^>0$, thus $e^x$ is continuous.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        3
        down vote













        Let $a$ be a positive real number. Then the function $f: mathbbRto mathbbR$ defined by $xmapsto a^x$ is continuous.



        Proof:



        1) First we prove the continuous at $0$.



        We may assume that $a>1$. Let $varepsilon>0$ be arbitrary. Since $a^1/kto 1$ and $a^-1/kto 1$ as $kto infty$, we choose $K$ such that both are $varepsilon$-close to $1$. Let $delta=1/K$, so for $|x|<1/K$ we have



        beginalign-1/K<x<1/K\a^-1/K<a^x<a^1/K endalign



        which proves that $a^x$ is $varepsilon$-close to $1$ as desired (the case $ale1$ is handled similarly just with the inequality in the other direction).



        2) To conclude we prove the continuity in the general case.



        Let $x_0in mathbbR$, we have to show that $lim_xto x_0a^x=a^x_0$. Since $x-x_0to 0$ as $xto x_0$, then $a^x-x_0to1$ by ($1$) and thus



        $$lim_xto x_0a^x=lim_xto x_0a^x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0lim_xto x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0$$



        as was to be shown.



        Since $ein mathbbR^>0$, thus $e^x$ is continuous.






        share|cite|improve this answer























          up vote
          3
          down vote










          up vote
          3
          down vote









          Let $a$ be a positive real number. Then the function $f: mathbbRto mathbbR$ defined by $xmapsto a^x$ is continuous.



          Proof:



          1) First we prove the continuous at $0$.



          We may assume that $a>1$. Let $varepsilon>0$ be arbitrary. Since $a^1/kto 1$ and $a^-1/kto 1$ as $kto infty$, we choose $K$ such that both are $varepsilon$-close to $1$. Let $delta=1/K$, so for $|x|<1/K$ we have



          beginalign-1/K<x<1/K\a^-1/K<a^x<a^1/K endalign



          which proves that $a^x$ is $varepsilon$-close to $1$ as desired (the case $ale1$ is handled similarly just with the inequality in the other direction).



          2) To conclude we prove the continuity in the general case.



          Let $x_0in mathbbR$, we have to show that $lim_xto x_0a^x=a^x_0$. Since $x-x_0to 0$ as $xto x_0$, then $a^x-x_0to1$ by ($1$) and thus



          $$lim_xto x_0a^x=lim_xto x_0a^x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0lim_xto x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0$$



          as was to be shown.



          Since $ein mathbbR^>0$, thus $e^x$ is continuous.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Let $a$ be a positive real number. Then the function $f: mathbbRto mathbbR$ defined by $xmapsto a^x$ is continuous.



          Proof:



          1) First we prove the continuous at $0$.



          We may assume that $a>1$. Let $varepsilon>0$ be arbitrary. Since $a^1/kto 1$ and $a^-1/kto 1$ as $kto infty$, we choose $K$ such that both are $varepsilon$-close to $1$. Let $delta=1/K$, so for $|x|<1/K$ we have



          beginalign-1/K<x<1/K\a^-1/K<a^x<a^1/K endalign



          which proves that $a^x$ is $varepsilon$-close to $1$ as desired (the case $ale1$ is handled similarly just with the inequality in the other direction).



          2) To conclude we prove the continuity in the general case.



          Let $x_0in mathbbR$, we have to show that $lim_xto x_0a^x=a^x_0$. Since $x-x_0to 0$ as $xto x_0$, then $a^x-x_0to1$ by ($1$) and thus



          $$lim_xto x_0a^x=lim_xto x_0a^x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0lim_xto x_0a^x-x_0=a^x_0$$



          as was to be shown.



          Since $ein mathbbR^>0$, thus $e^x$ is continuous.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Mar 23 '14 at 5:38









          Jose Antonio

          4,36921326




          4,36921326




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Start with $|x-c|<delta$.



              Let's take a look at the case that $xge c$.
              Then:
              $$x-c <delta$$
              $$x < c+ delta$$
              $$e^x < e^c+delta$$
              $$0 le e^x-e^c < e^c(e^delta - 1)$$
              Let's pick $delta$ such that $varepsilon = e^c(e^delta - 1)$.
              Then:
              $$delta = ln(1+varepsilon e^-c)$$
              Repeat for $x<c$.



              In other words, you are able to find a $delta$ for any $varepsilon>0$.



              Qed.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                Start with $|x-c|<delta$.



                Let's take a look at the case that $xge c$.
                Then:
                $$x-c <delta$$
                $$x < c+ delta$$
                $$e^x < e^c+delta$$
                $$0 le e^x-e^c < e^c(e^delta - 1)$$
                Let's pick $delta$ such that $varepsilon = e^c(e^delta - 1)$.
                Then:
                $$delta = ln(1+varepsilon e^-c)$$
                Repeat for $x<c$.



                In other words, you are able to find a $delta$ for any $varepsilon>0$.



                Qed.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  Start with $|x-c|<delta$.



                  Let's take a look at the case that $xge c$.
                  Then:
                  $$x-c <delta$$
                  $$x < c+ delta$$
                  $$e^x < e^c+delta$$
                  $$0 le e^x-e^c < e^c(e^delta - 1)$$
                  Let's pick $delta$ such that $varepsilon = e^c(e^delta - 1)$.
                  Then:
                  $$delta = ln(1+varepsilon e^-c)$$
                  Repeat for $x<c$.



                  In other words, you are able to find a $delta$ for any $varepsilon>0$.



                  Qed.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  Start with $|x-c|<delta$.



                  Let's take a look at the case that $xge c$.
                  Then:
                  $$x-c <delta$$
                  $$x < c+ delta$$
                  $$e^x < e^c+delta$$
                  $$0 le e^x-e^c < e^c(e^delta - 1)$$
                  Let's pick $delta$ such that $varepsilon = e^c(e^delta - 1)$.
                  Then:
                  $$delta = ln(1+varepsilon e^-c)$$
                  Repeat for $x<c$.



                  In other words, you are able to find a $delta$ for any $varepsilon>0$.



                  Qed.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Mar 23 '14 at 0:47









                  I like Serena

                  3,0731718




                  3,0731718






















                       

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