Continuous homomorphisms of Lie groups are smooth

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I'm working on problem 20-11 from Lee's "Introduction to Smooth Manifolds", which asks us to prove:



  1. Every continuous homomorphism $gamma : mathbb R to G$ is smooth ($G$ a Lie group).

  2. Every continuous homomorphism $F : G to H$ of Lie groups is smooth.

The first part comes with a hint: let $V subseteq mathrmLie(G) = mathfrak g$ be a neighborhood of $0$ such that $exp: 2V to exp(2V)$ is a diffeomorphism (with $2V = 2X : X in V$). Choose $t_0$ small enough that $gamma(t) in exp(V)$ whenever $|t| leq t_0$, and let $X_0$ be the element of $V$ such that $gamma(t_0) = exp X_0$. Then one can show $gamma(qt_0) = exp(qX_0)$ whenever $q = m/2^n$ for some $m,n$.



I've been able to show all of this in the hint, but I'm not sure why that implies $gamma$ is smooth. Is it because it now depends smoothly on $X_0$, which is in one-to-one correspondence with $t_0$? But why should that be true? And why do we care about the dyadic rational $q$?



Part 2 also comes with a hint: show that there's a map $phi : mathfrak g to mathfrak h$ so that the following diagram commutes:
$requireAMScd$
beginCD
mathfrak g @>phi>> mathfrak h\
@V exp V V @VV exp V\
G @>>F> H
endCD
and then show $phi$ is linear. But without knowing whether we can talk about $dF_e$, how could we construct such a $phi$?



Any help with either of these problems would be greatly appreciated (or even a good resource on why continuous homomorphisms of Lie groups are automatically smooth).







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    I'm working on problem 20-11 from Lee's "Introduction to Smooth Manifolds", which asks us to prove:



    1. Every continuous homomorphism $gamma : mathbb R to G$ is smooth ($G$ a Lie group).

    2. Every continuous homomorphism $F : G to H$ of Lie groups is smooth.

    The first part comes with a hint: let $V subseteq mathrmLie(G) = mathfrak g$ be a neighborhood of $0$ such that $exp: 2V to exp(2V)$ is a diffeomorphism (with $2V = 2X : X in V$). Choose $t_0$ small enough that $gamma(t) in exp(V)$ whenever $|t| leq t_0$, and let $X_0$ be the element of $V$ such that $gamma(t_0) = exp X_0$. Then one can show $gamma(qt_0) = exp(qX_0)$ whenever $q = m/2^n$ for some $m,n$.



    I've been able to show all of this in the hint, but I'm not sure why that implies $gamma$ is smooth. Is it because it now depends smoothly on $X_0$, which is in one-to-one correspondence with $t_0$? But why should that be true? And why do we care about the dyadic rational $q$?



    Part 2 also comes with a hint: show that there's a map $phi : mathfrak g to mathfrak h$ so that the following diagram commutes:
    $requireAMScd$
    beginCD
    mathfrak g @>phi>> mathfrak h\
    @V exp V V @VV exp V\
    G @>>F> H
    endCD
    and then show $phi$ is linear. But without knowing whether we can talk about $dF_e$, how could we construct such a $phi$?



    Any help with either of these problems would be greatly appreciated (or even a good resource on why continuous homomorphisms of Lie groups are automatically smooth).







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      3
      down vote

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      3
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      I'm working on problem 20-11 from Lee's "Introduction to Smooth Manifolds", which asks us to prove:



      1. Every continuous homomorphism $gamma : mathbb R to G$ is smooth ($G$ a Lie group).

      2. Every continuous homomorphism $F : G to H$ of Lie groups is smooth.

      The first part comes with a hint: let $V subseteq mathrmLie(G) = mathfrak g$ be a neighborhood of $0$ such that $exp: 2V to exp(2V)$ is a diffeomorphism (with $2V = 2X : X in V$). Choose $t_0$ small enough that $gamma(t) in exp(V)$ whenever $|t| leq t_0$, and let $X_0$ be the element of $V$ such that $gamma(t_0) = exp X_0$. Then one can show $gamma(qt_0) = exp(qX_0)$ whenever $q = m/2^n$ for some $m,n$.



      I've been able to show all of this in the hint, but I'm not sure why that implies $gamma$ is smooth. Is it because it now depends smoothly on $X_0$, which is in one-to-one correspondence with $t_0$? But why should that be true? And why do we care about the dyadic rational $q$?



      Part 2 also comes with a hint: show that there's a map $phi : mathfrak g to mathfrak h$ so that the following diagram commutes:
      $requireAMScd$
      beginCD
      mathfrak g @>phi>> mathfrak h\
      @V exp V V @VV exp V\
      G @>>F> H
      endCD
      and then show $phi$ is linear. But without knowing whether we can talk about $dF_e$, how could we construct such a $phi$?



      Any help with either of these problems would be greatly appreciated (or even a good resource on why continuous homomorphisms of Lie groups are automatically smooth).







      share|cite|improve this question











      I'm working on problem 20-11 from Lee's "Introduction to Smooth Manifolds", which asks us to prove:



      1. Every continuous homomorphism $gamma : mathbb R to G$ is smooth ($G$ a Lie group).

      2. Every continuous homomorphism $F : G to H$ of Lie groups is smooth.

      The first part comes with a hint: let $V subseteq mathrmLie(G) = mathfrak g$ be a neighborhood of $0$ such that $exp: 2V to exp(2V)$ is a diffeomorphism (with $2V = 2X : X in V$). Choose $t_0$ small enough that $gamma(t) in exp(V)$ whenever $|t| leq t_0$, and let $X_0$ be the element of $V$ such that $gamma(t_0) = exp X_0$. Then one can show $gamma(qt_0) = exp(qX_0)$ whenever $q = m/2^n$ for some $m,n$.



      I've been able to show all of this in the hint, but I'm not sure why that implies $gamma$ is smooth. Is it because it now depends smoothly on $X_0$, which is in one-to-one correspondence with $t_0$? But why should that be true? And why do we care about the dyadic rational $q$?



      Part 2 also comes with a hint: show that there's a map $phi : mathfrak g to mathfrak h$ so that the following diagram commutes:
      $requireAMScd$
      beginCD
      mathfrak g @>phi>> mathfrak h\
      @V exp V V @VV exp V\
      G @>>F> H
      endCD
      and then show $phi$ is linear. But without knowing whether we can talk about $dF_e$, how could we construct such a $phi$?



      Any help with either of these problems would be greatly appreciated (or even a good resource on why continuous homomorphisms of Lie groups are automatically smooth).









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




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      asked Jul 21 at 17:22









      D Ford

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          Those dyadic rationals are dense in $[-1,1]$. So, near $0$, we have, by the continuity of $gamma$, $gamma(ttimes t_0)=exp(tX_0)$. In other words, $gamma(t)=expleft(frac tt_0X_0right)$ and therefore $gamma$ is differentiable.



          For the other question, let $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ be a basis of $mathfrak g$ and consider the mapbeginarrayrcccalphacolon&mathbbR^n&longrightarrow&G\&(t_1,ldots,t_n)&mapsto&exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n).endarrayThen $alpha$ is smooth. If $(x_1,ldots,x_n)inmathbbR^n$, thenbeginalignleft.fracmathrm dmathrm dtalphabigl(t(x_1,ldots,x_n)bigr)right|_t=0&=left.fracmathrm dmathrm dtexp(tx_1X_1)ldotsexp(tx_nX_n)right|_t=0\&=x_1X_1+cdots x_nX_n.endalignand therefore $Dalpha_0$ is an isomorphism. So, $alpha$ induces a diffeomorphism from a neighborhood $U$ of $(0,0,ldots,0)$ onto a neighborhood $V$ of $e_G$. If $(t_1,ldots,t_n)in U$, thenbeginalignFbigl(alpha(t_1,ldots,t_n)bigr)&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n)bigr)\&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)bigr)ldots Fbigl(exp(t_nX_n)bigr),endalignwhich is smooth. Since $F|_V$ is smooth, $F$ is smooth.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! I came across this same argument for part 2 shortly after writing this question. I like the explanation, though I would be curious about how to construct an explicit function $phi$ as hinted. It seems such a map could only be defined in a neighborhood of the identity of $mathfrak g$...
            – D Ford
            Jul 21 at 18:30










          • My guess is that $phi$ is defined as follows: first, you find, for each $kin1,ldots,n$, a $Y_kinmathfrak h$ such that $tmapstoexp(tY_k)$ is equal to $tmapsto Fbigl(exp(tX_k)bigr)$. Then you define $phi$ as$$exp(tX_1)ldotsexp(tX_n)mapstoexp(tY_1)ldotsexp(tY_n).$$But this only occurred to me only after answering your question.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jul 21 at 18:40











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          Those dyadic rationals are dense in $[-1,1]$. So, near $0$, we have, by the continuity of $gamma$, $gamma(ttimes t_0)=exp(tX_0)$. In other words, $gamma(t)=expleft(frac tt_0X_0right)$ and therefore $gamma$ is differentiable.



          For the other question, let $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ be a basis of $mathfrak g$ and consider the mapbeginarrayrcccalphacolon&mathbbR^n&longrightarrow&G\&(t_1,ldots,t_n)&mapsto&exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n).endarrayThen $alpha$ is smooth. If $(x_1,ldots,x_n)inmathbbR^n$, thenbeginalignleft.fracmathrm dmathrm dtalphabigl(t(x_1,ldots,x_n)bigr)right|_t=0&=left.fracmathrm dmathrm dtexp(tx_1X_1)ldotsexp(tx_nX_n)right|_t=0\&=x_1X_1+cdots x_nX_n.endalignand therefore $Dalpha_0$ is an isomorphism. So, $alpha$ induces a diffeomorphism from a neighborhood $U$ of $(0,0,ldots,0)$ onto a neighborhood $V$ of $e_G$. If $(t_1,ldots,t_n)in U$, thenbeginalignFbigl(alpha(t_1,ldots,t_n)bigr)&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n)bigr)\&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)bigr)ldots Fbigl(exp(t_nX_n)bigr),endalignwhich is smooth. Since $F|_V$ is smooth, $F$ is smooth.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! I came across this same argument for part 2 shortly after writing this question. I like the explanation, though I would be curious about how to construct an explicit function $phi$ as hinted. It seems such a map could only be defined in a neighborhood of the identity of $mathfrak g$...
            – D Ford
            Jul 21 at 18:30










          • My guess is that $phi$ is defined as follows: first, you find, for each $kin1,ldots,n$, a $Y_kinmathfrak h$ such that $tmapstoexp(tY_k)$ is equal to $tmapsto Fbigl(exp(tX_k)bigr)$. Then you define $phi$ as$$exp(tX_1)ldotsexp(tX_n)mapstoexp(tY_1)ldotsexp(tY_n).$$But this only occurred to me only after answering your question.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jul 21 at 18:40















          up vote
          1
          down vote













          Those dyadic rationals are dense in $[-1,1]$. So, near $0$, we have, by the continuity of $gamma$, $gamma(ttimes t_0)=exp(tX_0)$. In other words, $gamma(t)=expleft(frac tt_0X_0right)$ and therefore $gamma$ is differentiable.



          For the other question, let $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ be a basis of $mathfrak g$ and consider the mapbeginarrayrcccalphacolon&mathbbR^n&longrightarrow&G\&(t_1,ldots,t_n)&mapsto&exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n).endarrayThen $alpha$ is smooth. If $(x_1,ldots,x_n)inmathbbR^n$, thenbeginalignleft.fracmathrm dmathrm dtalphabigl(t(x_1,ldots,x_n)bigr)right|_t=0&=left.fracmathrm dmathrm dtexp(tx_1X_1)ldotsexp(tx_nX_n)right|_t=0\&=x_1X_1+cdots x_nX_n.endalignand therefore $Dalpha_0$ is an isomorphism. So, $alpha$ induces a diffeomorphism from a neighborhood $U$ of $(0,0,ldots,0)$ onto a neighborhood $V$ of $e_G$. If $(t_1,ldots,t_n)in U$, thenbeginalignFbigl(alpha(t_1,ldots,t_n)bigr)&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n)bigr)\&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)bigr)ldots Fbigl(exp(t_nX_n)bigr),endalignwhich is smooth. Since $F|_V$ is smooth, $F$ is smooth.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks! I came across this same argument for part 2 shortly after writing this question. I like the explanation, though I would be curious about how to construct an explicit function $phi$ as hinted. It seems such a map could only be defined in a neighborhood of the identity of $mathfrak g$...
            – D Ford
            Jul 21 at 18:30










          • My guess is that $phi$ is defined as follows: first, you find, for each $kin1,ldots,n$, a $Y_kinmathfrak h$ such that $tmapstoexp(tY_k)$ is equal to $tmapsto Fbigl(exp(tX_k)bigr)$. Then you define $phi$ as$$exp(tX_1)ldotsexp(tX_n)mapstoexp(tY_1)ldotsexp(tY_n).$$But this only occurred to me only after answering your question.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jul 21 at 18:40













          up vote
          1
          down vote










          up vote
          1
          down vote









          Those dyadic rationals are dense in $[-1,1]$. So, near $0$, we have, by the continuity of $gamma$, $gamma(ttimes t_0)=exp(tX_0)$. In other words, $gamma(t)=expleft(frac tt_0X_0right)$ and therefore $gamma$ is differentiable.



          For the other question, let $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ be a basis of $mathfrak g$ and consider the mapbeginarrayrcccalphacolon&mathbbR^n&longrightarrow&G\&(t_1,ldots,t_n)&mapsto&exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n).endarrayThen $alpha$ is smooth. If $(x_1,ldots,x_n)inmathbbR^n$, thenbeginalignleft.fracmathrm dmathrm dtalphabigl(t(x_1,ldots,x_n)bigr)right|_t=0&=left.fracmathrm dmathrm dtexp(tx_1X_1)ldotsexp(tx_nX_n)right|_t=0\&=x_1X_1+cdots x_nX_n.endalignand therefore $Dalpha_0$ is an isomorphism. So, $alpha$ induces a diffeomorphism from a neighborhood $U$ of $(0,0,ldots,0)$ onto a neighborhood $V$ of $e_G$. If $(t_1,ldots,t_n)in U$, thenbeginalignFbigl(alpha(t_1,ldots,t_n)bigr)&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n)bigr)\&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)bigr)ldots Fbigl(exp(t_nX_n)bigr),endalignwhich is smooth. Since $F|_V$ is smooth, $F$ is smooth.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Those dyadic rationals are dense in $[-1,1]$. So, near $0$, we have, by the continuity of $gamma$, $gamma(ttimes t_0)=exp(tX_0)$. In other words, $gamma(t)=expleft(frac tt_0X_0right)$ and therefore $gamma$ is differentiable.



          For the other question, let $(X_1,ldots,X_n)$ be a basis of $mathfrak g$ and consider the mapbeginarrayrcccalphacolon&mathbbR^n&longrightarrow&G\&(t_1,ldots,t_n)&mapsto&exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n).endarrayThen $alpha$ is smooth. If $(x_1,ldots,x_n)inmathbbR^n$, thenbeginalignleft.fracmathrm dmathrm dtalphabigl(t(x_1,ldots,x_n)bigr)right|_t=0&=left.fracmathrm dmathrm dtexp(tx_1X_1)ldotsexp(tx_nX_n)right|_t=0\&=x_1X_1+cdots x_nX_n.endalignand therefore $Dalpha_0$ is an isomorphism. So, $alpha$ induces a diffeomorphism from a neighborhood $U$ of $(0,0,ldots,0)$ onto a neighborhood $V$ of $e_G$. If $(t_1,ldots,t_n)in U$, thenbeginalignFbigl(alpha(t_1,ldots,t_n)bigr)&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)ldotsexp(t_nX_n)bigr)\&=Fbigl(exp(t_1X_1)bigr)ldots Fbigl(exp(t_nX_n)bigr),endalignwhich is smooth. Since $F|_V$ is smooth, $F$ is smooth.







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          answered Jul 21 at 17:57









          José Carlos Santos

          114k1698177




          114k1698177











          • Thanks! I came across this same argument for part 2 shortly after writing this question. I like the explanation, though I would be curious about how to construct an explicit function $phi$ as hinted. It seems such a map could only be defined in a neighborhood of the identity of $mathfrak g$...
            – D Ford
            Jul 21 at 18:30










          • My guess is that $phi$ is defined as follows: first, you find, for each $kin1,ldots,n$, a $Y_kinmathfrak h$ such that $tmapstoexp(tY_k)$ is equal to $tmapsto Fbigl(exp(tX_k)bigr)$. Then you define $phi$ as$$exp(tX_1)ldotsexp(tX_n)mapstoexp(tY_1)ldotsexp(tY_n).$$But this only occurred to me only after answering your question.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jul 21 at 18:40

















          • Thanks! I came across this same argument for part 2 shortly after writing this question. I like the explanation, though I would be curious about how to construct an explicit function $phi$ as hinted. It seems such a map could only be defined in a neighborhood of the identity of $mathfrak g$...
            – D Ford
            Jul 21 at 18:30










          • My guess is that $phi$ is defined as follows: first, you find, for each $kin1,ldots,n$, a $Y_kinmathfrak h$ such that $tmapstoexp(tY_k)$ is equal to $tmapsto Fbigl(exp(tX_k)bigr)$. Then you define $phi$ as$$exp(tX_1)ldotsexp(tX_n)mapstoexp(tY_1)ldotsexp(tY_n).$$But this only occurred to me only after answering your question.
            – José Carlos Santos
            Jul 21 at 18:40
















          Thanks! I came across this same argument for part 2 shortly after writing this question. I like the explanation, though I would be curious about how to construct an explicit function $phi$ as hinted. It seems such a map could only be defined in a neighborhood of the identity of $mathfrak g$...
          – D Ford
          Jul 21 at 18:30




          Thanks! I came across this same argument for part 2 shortly after writing this question. I like the explanation, though I would be curious about how to construct an explicit function $phi$ as hinted. It seems such a map could only be defined in a neighborhood of the identity of $mathfrak g$...
          – D Ford
          Jul 21 at 18:30












          My guess is that $phi$ is defined as follows: first, you find, for each $kin1,ldots,n$, a $Y_kinmathfrak h$ such that $tmapstoexp(tY_k)$ is equal to $tmapsto Fbigl(exp(tX_k)bigr)$. Then you define $phi$ as$$exp(tX_1)ldotsexp(tX_n)mapstoexp(tY_1)ldotsexp(tY_n).$$But this only occurred to me only after answering your question.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Jul 21 at 18:40





          My guess is that $phi$ is defined as follows: first, you find, for each $kin1,ldots,n$, a $Y_kinmathfrak h$ such that $tmapstoexp(tY_k)$ is equal to $tmapsto Fbigl(exp(tX_k)bigr)$. Then you define $phi$ as$$exp(tX_1)ldotsexp(tX_n)mapstoexp(tY_1)ldotsexp(tY_n).$$But this only occurred to me only after answering your question.
          – José Carlos Santos
          Jul 21 at 18:40













           

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