Creating an infinite list of sets of natural numbers.

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We can define a list like this, we begin with two elements in rows -1 and 1



(-1) $colorredvarnothing$



(1) $colorblue1$



Then we copy the top half of our list and paste it on the bottom and vice versa



(-2) $colorblue1$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing$



(1) $colorblue1$



(2) $colorredvarnothing$



Then we append the top with empty sets and the bottom with the next natural number



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



Again we copy the top half of our list and paste it on the bottom and vice versa



(-4) $colorblue1,2$



(-3) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



(3) $colorred1,varnothing$



(4) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



Again we append the top with empty sets and the bottom with the next natural number



(-4) $colorred1,2,varnothing$



(-3) $colorredvarnothing,2,varnothing$



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2,3$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2,3$



(3) $colorblue1,varnothing,3$



(4) $colorbluevarnothing,varnothing,3$



If we do this forever, will the set of natural numbers be on some row in this list? I would think "yes, it is in row (1)".



It is obvious that there is a symmetry between the top half of the list and the bottom half of the list, but will this symmetry hold when there is an infinite number of elements in each row? Will the cardinality of the top half of the list be the same as the cardinality of the bottom half of the list?



I will add a note to explain why I find this question interesting.



After three steps our list has 8 rows where four (-1) to (-4) elements are in the top half and four (1) to (4) elements are in the bottom half, so the cardinality of the top is the same as the bottom. And we have all the subsets of the set 1,2,3 represented on our list.



If we take one more step, we will have 16 rows, where 8 are in top half of our list and 8 in the bottom. And for any number of steps we will have the same number of rows in the top as we have in the bottom and all the possible subsets will be represented. This is just the natural outcome from the way we construct our list.



If the cardinality of the top half of the list is still the same as the bottom of the list when we have an infinite number of rows in our list, we will have a problem.



All the sets in the top half of our list will have a finite number of elements and all the sets in the bottom of the list will have an infinite number of elements. This would contradict Cantor's idea of infinite sets, if all the subsets of the natural numbers are present on this list.



If we could find an infinite set that is not in the bottom half of our list, we could preserve Cantor. But we can't find it by diagonalizing the bottom half of the list. (diagonalization will only produce finite sets)



So, how do we harmonize this list with Cantor's diagonal argument?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • the Row 1 being natural numbers is quite obvious, while I don't understand what your other questions mean
    – Rushabh Mehta
    Aug 6 at 15:18






  • 1




    Count. (1) $1$, (2) $2$, (3) $3$, ... (n) $n$, ... Did at some point you count all the natural numbers?
    – Asaf Karagila♦
    Aug 6 at 16:11











  • @Asaf Karagila Would the same apply to the set of even natural numbers, count (1) ∅, (2) 2, (3) ∅, (4) 4, (5) ∅, (6) 6, ... (n-1) ∅, (n) n, ... Did at some point you count all the even natural numbers?
    – Ivan Hieno
    Aug 7 at 12:50










  • @Rushabh Mehta I added a little information to the question to explain what I am trying to figure out here.
    – Ivan Hieno
    Aug 8 at 12:38










  • I think there is no contradiction. When we pass to the limit, on the top half we have the finite subsets, as you say, and on the bottom half we have the cofinite subsets (subsets such that the complement is finite). An example of set that is not finite or cofinite, and thus is not in the final list, would be e.g. the set of even numbers.
    – pregunton
    Aug 8 at 12:43














up vote
-1
down vote

favorite












We can define a list like this, we begin with two elements in rows -1 and 1



(-1) $colorredvarnothing$



(1) $colorblue1$



Then we copy the top half of our list and paste it on the bottom and vice versa



(-2) $colorblue1$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing$



(1) $colorblue1$



(2) $colorredvarnothing$



Then we append the top with empty sets and the bottom with the next natural number



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



Again we copy the top half of our list and paste it on the bottom and vice versa



(-4) $colorblue1,2$



(-3) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



(3) $colorred1,varnothing$



(4) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



Again we append the top with empty sets and the bottom with the next natural number



(-4) $colorred1,2,varnothing$



(-3) $colorredvarnothing,2,varnothing$



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2,3$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2,3$



(3) $colorblue1,varnothing,3$



(4) $colorbluevarnothing,varnothing,3$



If we do this forever, will the set of natural numbers be on some row in this list? I would think "yes, it is in row (1)".



It is obvious that there is a symmetry between the top half of the list and the bottom half of the list, but will this symmetry hold when there is an infinite number of elements in each row? Will the cardinality of the top half of the list be the same as the cardinality of the bottom half of the list?



I will add a note to explain why I find this question interesting.



After three steps our list has 8 rows where four (-1) to (-4) elements are in the top half and four (1) to (4) elements are in the bottom half, so the cardinality of the top is the same as the bottom. And we have all the subsets of the set 1,2,3 represented on our list.



If we take one more step, we will have 16 rows, where 8 are in top half of our list and 8 in the bottom. And for any number of steps we will have the same number of rows in the top as we have in the bottom and all the possible subsets will be represented. This is just the natural outcome from the way we construct our list.



If the cardinality of the top half of the list is still the same as the bottom of the list when we have an infinite number of rows in our list, we will have a problem.



All the sets in the top half of our list will have a finite number of elements and all the sets in the bottom of the list will have an infinite number of elements. This would contradict Cantor's idea of infinite sets, if all the subsets of the natural numbers are present on this list.



If we could find an infinite set that is not in the bottom half of our list, we could preserve Cantor. But we can't find it by diagonalizing the bottom half of the list. (diagonalization will only produce finite sets)



So, how do we harmonize this list with Cantor's diagonal argument?







share|cite|improve this question





















  • the Row 1 being natural numbers is quite obvious, while I don't understand what your other questions mean
    – Rushabh Mehta
    Aug 6 at 15:18






  • 1




    Count. (1) $1$, (2) $2$, (3) $3$, ... (n) $n$, ... Did at some point you count all the natural numbers?
    – Asaf Karagila♦
    Aug 6 at 16:11











  • @Asaf Karagila Would the same apply to the set of even natural numbers, count (1) ∅, (2) 2, (3) ∅, (4) 4, (5) ∅, (6) 6, ... (n-1) ∅, (n) n, ... Did at some point you count all the even natural numbers?
    – Ivan Hieno
    Aug 7 at 12:50










  • @Rushabh Mehta I added a little information to the question to explain what I am trying to figure out here.
    – Ivan Hieno
    Aug 8 at 12:38










  • I think there is no contradiction. When we pass to the limit, on the top half we have the finite subsets, as you say, and on the bottom half we have the cofinite subsets (subsets such that the complement is finite). An example of set that is not finite or cofinite, and thus is not in the final list, would be e.g. the set of even numbers.
    – pregunton
    Aug 8 at 12:43












up vote
-1
down vote

favorite









up vote
-1
down vote

favorite











We can define a list like this, we begin with two elements in rows -1 and 1



(-1) $colorredvarnothing$



(1) $colorblue1$



Then we copy the top half of our list and paste it on the bottom and vice versa



(-2) $colorblue1$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing$



(1) $colorblue1$



(2) $colorredvarnothing$



Then we append the top with empty sets and the bottom with the next natural number



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



Again we copy the top half of our list and paste it on the bottom and vice versa



(-4) $colorblue1,2$



(-3) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



(3) $colorred1,varnothing$



(4) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



Again we append the top with empty sets and the bottom with the next natural number



(-4) $colorred1,2,varnothing$



(-3) $colorredvarnothing,2,varnothing$



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2,3$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2,3$



(3) $colorblue1,varnothing,3$



(4) $colorbluevarnothing,varnothing,3$



If we do this forever, will the set of natural numbers be on some row in this list? I would think "yes, it is in row (1)".



It is obvious that there is a symmetry between the top half of the list and the bottom half of the list, but will this symmetry hold when there is an infinite number of elements in each row? Will the cardinality of the top half of the list be the same as the cardinality of the bottom half of the list?



I will add a note to explain why I find this question interesting.



After three steps our list has 8 rows where four (-1) to (-4) elements are in the top half and four (1) to (4) elements are in the bottom half, so the cardinality of the top is the same as the bottom. And we have all the subsets of the set 1,2,3 represented on our list.



If we take one more step, we will have 16 rows, where 8 are in top half of our list and 8 in the bottom. And for any number of steps we will have the same number of rows in the top as we have in the bottom and all the possible subsets will be represented. This is just the natural outcome from the way we construct our list.



If the cardinality of the top half of the list is still the same as the bottom of the list when we have an infinite number of rows in our list, we will have a problem.



All the sets in the top half of our list will have a finite number of elements and all the sets in the bottom of the list will have an infinite number of elements. This would contradict Cantor's idea of infinite sets, if all the subsets of the natural numbers are present on this list.



If we could find an infinite set that is not in the bottom half of our list, we could preserve Cantor. But we can't find it by diagonalizing the bottom half of the list. (diagonalization will only produce finite sets)



So, how do we harmonize this list with Cantor's diagonal argument?







share|cite|improve this question













We can define a list like this, we begin with two elements in rows -1 and 1



(-1) $colorredvarnothing$



(1) $colorblue1$



Then we copy the top half of our list and paste it on the bottom and vice versa



(-2) $colorblue1$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing$



(1) $colorblue1$



(2) $colorredvarnothing$



Then we append the top with empty sets and the bottom with the next natural number



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



Again we copy the top half of our list and paste it on the bottom and vice versa



(-4) $colorblue1,2$



(-3) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2$



(3) $colorred1,varnothing$



(4) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing$



Again we append the top with empty sets and the bottom with the next natural number



(-4) $colorred1,2,varnothing$



(-3) $colorredvarnothing,2,varnothing$



(-2) $colorred1,varnothing,varnothing$



(-1) $colorredvarnothing,varnothing,varnothing$



(1) $colorblue1,2,3$



(2) $colorbluevarnothing,2,3$



(3) $colorblue1,varnothing,3$



(4) $colorbluevarnothing,varnothing,3$



If we do this forever, will the set of natural numbers be on some row in this list? I would think "yes, it is in row (1)".



It is obvious that there is a symmetry between the top half of the list and the bottom half of the list, but will this symmetry hold when there is an infinite number of elements in each row? Will the cardinality of the top half of the list be the same as the cardinality of the bottom half of the list?



I will add a note to explain why I find this question interesting.



After three steps our list has 8 rows where four (-1) to (-4) elements are in the top half and four (1) to (4) elements are in the bottom half, so the cardinality of the top is the same as the bottom. And we have all the subsets of the set 1,2,3 represented on our list.



If we take one more step, we will have 16 rows, where 8 are in top half of our list and 8 in the bottom. And for any number of steps we will have the same number of rows in the top as we have in the bottom and all the possible subsets will be represented. This is just the natural outcome from the way we construct our list.



If the cardinality of the top half of the list is still the same as the bottom of the list when we have an infinite number of rows in our list, we will have a problem.



All the sets in the top half of our list will have a finite number of elements and all the sets in the bottom of the list will have an infinite number of elements. This would contradict Cantor's idea of infinite sets, if all the subsets of the natural numbers are present on this list.



If we could find an infinite set that is not in the bottom half of our list, we could preserve Cantor. But we can't find it by diagonalizing the bottom half of the list. (diagonalization will only produce finite sets)



So, how do we harmonize this list with Cantor's diagonal argument?









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 8 at 12:23
























asked Aug 6 at 14:44









Ivan Hieno

1119




1119











  • the Row 1 being natural numbers is quite obvious, while I don't understand what your other questions mean
    – Rushabh Mehta
    Aug 6 at 15:18






  • 1




    Count. (1) $1$, (2) $2$, (3) $3$, ... (n) $n$, ... Did at some point you count all the natural numbers?
    – Asaf Karagila♦
    Aug 6 at 16:11











  • @Asaf Karagila Would the same apply to the set of even natural numbers, count (1) ∅, (2) 2, (3) ∅, (4) 4, (5) ∅, (6) 6, ... (n-1) ∅, (n) n, ... Did at some point you count all the even natural numbers?
    – Ivan Hieno
    Aug 7 at 12:50










  • @Rushabh Mehta I added a little information to the question to explain what I am trying to figure out here.
    – Ivan Hieno
    Aug 8 at 12:38










  • I think there is no contradiction. When we pass to the limit, on the top half we have the finite subsets, as you say, and on the bottom half we have the cofinite subsets (subsets such that the complement is finite). An example of set that is not finite or cofinite, and thus is not in the final list, would be e.g. the set of even numbers.
    – pregunton
    Aug 8 at 12:43
















  • the Row 1 being natural numbers is quite obvious, while I don't understand what your other questions mean
    – Rushabh Mehta
    Aug 6 at 15:18






  • 1




    Count. (1) $1$, (2) $2$, (3) $3$, ... (n) $n$, ... Did at some point you count all the natural numbers?
    – Asaf Karagila♦
    Aug 6 at 16:11











  • @Asaf Karagila Would the same apply to the set of even natural numbers, count (1) ∅, (2) 2, (3) ∅, (4) 4, (5) ∅, (6) 6, ... (n-1) ∅, (n) n, ... Did at some point you count all the even natural numbers?
    – Ivan Hieno
    Aug 7 at 12:50










  • @Rushabh Mehta I added a little information to the question to explain what I am trying to figure out here.
    – Ivan Hieno
    Aug 8 at 12:38










  • I think there is no contradiction. When we pass to the limit, on the top half we have the finite subsets, as you say, and on the bottom half we have the cofinite subsets (subsets such that the complement is finite). An example of set that is not finite or cofinite, and thus is not in the final list, would be e.g. the set of even numbers.
    – pregunton
    Aug 8 at 12:43















the Row 1 being natural numbers is quite obvious, while I don't understand what your other questions mean
– Rushabh Mehta
Aug 6 at 15:18




the Row 1 being natural numbers is quite obvious, while I don't understand what your other questions mean
– Rushabh Mehta
Aug 6 at 15:18




1




1




Count. (1) $1$, (2) $2$, (3) $3$, ... (n) $n$, ... Did at some point you count all the natural numbers?
– Asaf Karagila♦
Aug 6 at 16:11





Count. (1) $1$, (2) $2$, (3) $3$, ... (n) $n$, ... Did at some point you count all the natural numbers?
– Asaf Karagila♦
Aug 6 at 16:11













@Asaf Karagila Would the same apply to the set of even natural numbers, count (1) ∅, (2) 2, (3) ∅, (4) 4, (5) ∅, (6) 6, ... (n-1) ∅, (n) n, ... Did at some point you count all the even natural numbers?
– Ivan Hieno
Aug 7 at 12:50




@Asaf Karagila Would the same apply to the set of even natural numbers, count (1) ∅, (2) 2, (3) ∅, (4) 4, (5) ∅, (6) 6, ... (n-1) ∅, (n) n, ... Did at some point you count all the even natural numbers?
– Ivan Hieno
Aug 7 at 12:50












@Rushabh Mehta I added a little information to the question to explain what I am trying to figure out here.
– Ivan Hieno
Aug 8 at 12:38




@Rushabh Mehta I added a little information to the question to explain what I am trying to figure out here.
– Ivan Hieno
Aug 8 at 12:38












I think there is no contradiction. When we pass to the limit, on the top half we have the finite subsets, as you say, and on the bottom half we have the cofinite subsets (subsets such that the complement is finite). An example of set that is not finite or cofinite, and thus is not in the final list, would be e.g. the set of even numbers.
– pregunton
Aug 8 at 12:43




I think there is no contradiction. When we pass to the limit, on the top half we have the finite subsets, as you say, and on the bottom half we have the cofinite subsets (subsets such that the complement is finite). An example of set that is not finite or cofinite, and thus is not in the final list, would be e.g. the set of even numbers.
– pregunton
Aug 8 at 12:43















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