Progressively measurable process.

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Let $b: [0,T] times Omega times mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ with the properties:



  1. For all $ x in mathbbR$ the process $(t,omega) mapsto b(t,omega, x)$ is progressively measurable.


  2. There exits $ C > 0 $ such that for all $omega, t, x_1, x_2 $ we have
    $$ | b(t,omega, x_1) - b(t,omega, x_2) | leq C | x_1 - x_2 |. $$


Let $X = (X_t)_t in [0,T]$ be progressively measurable. I want to show that the process
$$ (t, omega) mapsto b(t,omega, X_t(omega) ) $$
is progressively measurable. This should follow from 1. and 2. but I was not able to prove it. I hope someone can help me out.



Edit: I actually need a more general result. Let $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ be the space of measures on $mathbbR$ with finite second moment. Equip this space with the Wasserstein metric $W^2.$ Then, $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ is a Polish space.



Let $b: [0,T] times Omega times mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ with the properties:



  1. For all $ x in mathbbR, mu in mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ the process $(t,omega) mapsto b(t,omega, x, mu)$ is progressively measurable.


  2. There exits $ C > 0 $ such that for all $omega, t, x_1, x_2 , mu_1, mu_2$ we have
    $$ | b(t,omega, x_1, mu_1) - b(t,omega, x_2, mu_2) | leq C big( | x_1 - x_2 | + W^2(mu_1, mu_2) big). $$


Let $X = (X_t)_t in [0,T]$ be progressively measurable. Let $P(X_t)$ be the push forward measure of $X_t$. I want to show that the process
$$ (t, omega) mapsto b(t,omega, X_t(omega), P(X_t) ) $$
is progressively measurable.



I tried to imitate the proof of the easier case. However, the problem seems to be that I cannot split $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ into disjoint sets of "small radius". Do you have an idea how to deal with this?







share|cite|improve this question

























    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite












    Let $b: [0,T] times Omega times mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ with the properties:



    1. For all $ x in mathbbR$ the process $(t,omega) mapsto b(t,omega, x)$ is progressively measurable.


    2. There exits $ C > 0 $ such that for all $omega, t, x_1, x_2 $ we have
      $$ | b(t,omega, x_1) - b(t,omega, x_2) | leq C | x_1 - x_2 |. $$


    Let $X = (X_t)_t in [0,T]$ be progressively measurable. I want to show that the process
    $$ (t, omega) mapsto b(t,omega, X_t(omega) ) $$
    is progressively measurable. This should follow from 1. and 2. but I was not able to prove it. I hope someone can help me out.



    Edit: I actually need a more general result. Let $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ be the space of measures on $mathbbR$ with finite second moment. Equip this space with the Wasserstein metric $W^2.$ Then, $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ is a Polish space.



    Let $b: [0,T] times Omega times mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ with the properties:



    1. For all $ x in mathbbR, mu in mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ the process $(t,omega) mapsto b(t,omega, x, mu)$ is progressively measurable.


    2. There exits $ C > 0 $ such that for all $omega, t, x_1, x_2 , mu_1, mu_2$ we have
      $$ | b(t,omega, x_1, mu_1) - b(t,omega, x_2, mu_2) | leq C big( | x_1 - x_2 | + W^2(mu_1, mu_2) big). $$


    Let $X = (X_t)_t in [0,T]$ be progressively measurable. Let $P(X_t)$ be the push forward measure of $X_t$. I want to show that the process
    $$ (t, omega) mapsto b(t,omega, X_t(omega), P(X_t) ) $$
    is progressively measurable.



    I tried to imitate the proof of the easier case. However, the problem seems to be that I cannot split $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ into disjoint sets of "small radius". Do you have an idea how to deal with this?







    share|cite|improve this question























      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite











      Let $b: [0,T] times Omega times mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ with the properties:



      1. For all $ x in mathbbR$ the process $(t,omega) mapsto b(t,omega, x)$ is progressively measurable.


      2. There exits $ C > 0 $ such that for all $omega, t, x_1, x_2 $ we have
        $$ | b(t,omega, x_1) - b(t,omega, x_2) | leq C | x_1 - x_2 |. $$


      Let $X = (X_t)_t in [0,T]$ be progressively measurable. I want to show that the process
      $$ (t, omega) mapsto b(t,omega, X_t(omega) ) $$
      is progressively measurable. This should follow from 1. and 2. but I was not able to prove it. I hope someone can help me out.



      Edit: I actually need a more general result. Let $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ be the space of measures on $mathbbR$ with finite second moment. Equip this space with the Wasserstein metric $W^2.$ Then, $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ is a Polish space.



      Let $b: [0,T] times Omega times mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ with the properties:



      1. For all $ x in mathbbR, mu in mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ the process $(t,omega) mapsto b(t,omega, x, mu)$ is progressively measurable.


      2. There exits $ C > 0 $ such that for all $omega, t, x_1, x_2 , mu_1, mu_2$ we have
        $$ | b(t,omega, x_1, mu_1) - b(t,omega, x_2, mu_2) | leq C big( | x_1 - x_2 | + W^2(mu_1, mu_2) big). $$


      Let $X = (X_t)_t in [0,T]$ be progressively measurable. Let $P(X_t)$ be the push forward measure of $X_t$. I want to show that the process
      $$ (t, omega) mapsto b(t,omega, X_t(omega), P(X_t) ) $$
      is progressively measurable.



      I tried to imitate the proof of the easier case. However, the problem seems to be that I cannot split $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ into disjoint sets of "small radius". Do you have an idea how to deal with this?







      share|cite|improve this question













      Let $b: [0,T] times Omega times mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ with the properties:



      1. For all $ x in mathbbR$ the process $(t,omega) mapsto b(t,omega, x)$ is progressively measurable.


      2. There exits $ C > 0 $ such that for all $omega, t, x_1, x_2 $ we have
        $$ | b(t,omega, x_1) - b(t,omega, x_2) | leq C | x_1 - x_2 |. $$


      Let $X = (X_t)_t in [0,T]$ be progressively measurable. I want to show that the process
      $$ (t, omega) mapsto b(t,omega, X_t(omega) ) $$
      is progressively measurable. This should follow from 1. and 2. but I was not able to prove it. I hope someone can help me out.



      Edit: I actually need a more general result. Let $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ be the space of measures on $mathbbR$ with finite second moment. Equip this space with the Wasserstein metric $W^2.$ Then, $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ is a Polish space.



      Let $b: [0,T] times Omega times mathbbR rightarrow mathbbR$ with the properties:



      1. For all $ x in mathbbR, mu in mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ the process $(t,omega) mapsto b(t,omega, x, mu)$ is progressively measurable.


      2. There exits $ C > 0 $ such that for all $omega, t, x_1, x_2 , mu_1, mu_2$ we have
        $$ | b(t,omega, x_1, mu_1) - b(t,omega, x_2, mu_2) | leq C big( | x_1 - x_2 | + W^2(mu_1, mu_2) big). $$


      Let $X = (X_t)_t in [0,T]$ be progressively measurable. Let $P(X_t)$ be the push forward measure of $X_t$. I want to show that the process
      $$ (t, omega) mapsto b(t,omega, X_t(omega), P(X_t) ) $$
      is progressively measurable.



      I tried to imitate the proof of the easier case. However, the problem seems to be that I cannot split $mathcalP_2(mathbbR)$ into disjoint sets of "small radius". Do you have an idea how to deal with this?









      share|cite|improve this question












      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question








      edited Aug 7 at 14:16
























      asked Aug 5 at 20:50









      White

      305




      305




















          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Consider $b_n(t,omega,x):=b(t,omega,k/n)$ for $xin[k/n,(k+1)/n)$ and integer $k$, where $n=1,2,ldots$. The corresponding process
          $$
          X^(n)_t(omega):=b_n(t,omega,X_t(omega))=sum_k b(t,omega,k/n)1_[k/n,(k+1)/n)(X_t(omega))
          $$
          is a countable sum of progressive process, and so is progressive. And because of the uniform Lipschitz condition you have imposed, you have the uniform convergence:
          $$
          lim_nsup_0le tle T|X^(n)_t(omega)-X_t(omega)|=0.
          $$
          It follows that $X$ is progressive as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks a lot, this is very helpful. I have one remark: I think uniform convergence is not necessary. Pointwise limits of measurable functions are measurable. Therefore, condition 2. can be relaxed to have the $C$ depending on $(t, omega).$ Is this correct?
            – White
            Aug 7 at 9:32











          • No doubt a weaker condition would suffice but th uniformity makes the pointwise convergence easy to see.
            – John Dawkins
            Aug 7 at 13:20










          • Thanks a lot, I posted a more general version. Maybe you could also help me out with this one.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 14:16











          • For the more general version, I was missing this piece of information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2875058/…. Using this fact we can use the same proof.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 15:29











          Your Answer




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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes








          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Consider $b_n(t,omega,x):=b(t,omega,k/n)$ for $xin[k/n,(k+1)/n)$ and integer $k$, where $n=1,2,ldots$. The corresponding process
          $$
          X^(n)_t(omega):=b_n(t,omega,X_t(omega))=sum_k b(t,omega,k/n)1_[k/n,(k+1)/n)(X_t(omega))
          $$
          is a countable sum of progressive process, and so is progressive. And because of the uniform Lipschitz condition you have imposed, you have the uniform convergence:
          $$
          lim_nsup_0le tle T|X^(n)_t(omega)-X_t(omega)|=0.
          $$
          It follows that $X$ is progressive as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks a lot, this is very helpful. I have one remark: I think uniform convergence is not necessary. Pointwise limits of measurable functions are measurable. Therefore, condition 2. can be relaxed to have the $C$ depending on $(t, omega).$ Is this correct?
            – White
            Aug 7 at 9:32











          • No doubt a weaker condition would suffice but th uniformity makes the pointwise convergence easy to see.
            – John Dawkins
            Aug 7 at 13:20










          • Thanks a lot, I posted a more general version. Maybe you could also help me out with this one.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 14:16











          • For the more general version, I was missing this piece of information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2875058/…. Using this fact we can use the same proof.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 15:29















          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted










          Consider $b_n(t,omega,x):=b(t,omega,k/n)$ for $xin[k/n,(k+1)/n)$ and integer $k$, where $n=1,2,ldots$. The corresponding process
          $$
          X^(n)_t(omega):=b_n(t,omega,X_t(omega))=sum_k b(t,omega,k/n)1_[k/n,(k+1)/n)(X_t(omega))
          $$
          is a countable sum of progressive process, and so is progressive. And because of the uniform Lipschitz condition you have imposed, you have the uniform convergence:
          $$
          lim_nsup_0le tle T|X^(n)_t(omega)-X_t(omega)|=0.
          $$
          It follows that $X$ is progressive as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • Thanks a lot, this is very helpful. I have one remark: I think uniform convergence is not necessary. Pointwise limits of measurable functions are measurable. Therefore, condition 2. can be relaxed to have the $C$ depending on $(t, omega).$ Is this correct?
            – White
            Aug 7 at 9:32











          • No doubt a weaker condition would suffice but th uniformity makes the pointwise convergence easy to see.
            – John Dawkins
            Aug 7 at 13:20










          • Thanks a lot, I posted a more general version. Maybe you could also help me out with this one.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 14:16











          • For the more general version, I was missing this piece of information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2875058/…. Using this fact we can use the same proof.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 15:29













          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          1
          down vote



          accepted






          Consider $b_n(t,omega,x):=b(t,omega,k/n)$ for $xin[k/n,(k+1)/n)$ and integer $k$, where $n=1,2,ldots$. The corresponding process
          $$
          X^(n)_t(omega):=b_n(t,omega,X_t(omega))=sum_k b(t,omega,k/n)1_[k/n,(k+1)/n)(X_t(omega))
          $$
          is a countable sum of progressive process, and so is progressive. And because of the uniform Lipschitz condition you have imposed, you have the uniform convergence:
          $$
          lim_nsup_0le tle T|X^(n)_t(omega)-X_t(omega)|=0.
          $$
          It follows that $X$ is progressive as well.






          share|cite|improve this answer













          Consider $b_n(t,omega,x):=b(t,omega,k/n)$ for $xin[k/n,(k+1)/n)$ and integer $k$, where $n=1,2,ldots$. The corresponding process
          $$
          X^(n)_t(omega):=b_n(t,omega,X_t(omega))=sum_k b(t,omega,k/n)1_[k/n,(k+1)/n)(X_t(omega))
          $$
          is a countable sum of progressive process, and so is progressive. And because of the uniform Lipschitz condition you have imposed, you have the uniform convergence:
          $$
          lim_nsup_0le tle T|X^(n)_t(omega)-X_t(omega)|=0.
          $$
          It follows that $X$ is progressive as well.







          share|cite|improve this answer













          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer











          answered Aug 6 at 23:06









          John Dawkins

          12.5k1917




          12.5k1917











          • Thanks a lot, this is very helpful. I have one remark: I think uniform convergence is not necessary. Pointwise limits of measurable functions are measurable. Therefore, condition 2. can be relaxed to have the $C$ depending on $(t, omega).$ Is this correct?
            – White
            Aug 7 at 9:32











          • No doubt a weaker condition would suffice but th uniformity makes the pointwise convergence easy to see.
            – John Dawkins
            Aug 7 at 13:20










          • Thanks a lot, I posted a more general version. Maybe you could also help me out with this one.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 14:16











          • For the more general version, I was missing this piece of information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2875058/…. Using this fact we can use the same proof.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 15:29

















          • Thanks a lot, this is very helpful. I have one remark: I think uniform convergence is not necessary. Pointwise limits of measurable functions are measurable. Therefore, condition 2. can be relaxed to have the $C$ depending on $(t, omega).$ Is this correct?
            – White
            Aug 7 at 9:32











          • No doubt a weaker condition would suffice but th uniformity makes the pointwise convergence easy to see.
            – John Dawkins
            Aug 7 at 13:20










          • Thanks a lot, I posted a more general version. Maybe you could also help me out with this one.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 14:16











          • For the more general version, I was missing this piece of information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2875058/…. Using this fact we can use the same proof.
            – White
            Aug 7 at 15:29
















          Thanks a lot, this is very helpful. I have one remark: I think uniform convergence is not necessary. Pointwise limits of measurable functions are measurable. Therefore, condition 2. can be relaxed to have the $C$ depending on $(t, omega).$ Is this correct?
          – White
          Aug 7 at 9:32





          Thanks a lot, this is very helpful. I have one remark: I think uniform convergence is not necessary. Pointwise limits of measurable functions are measurable. Therefore, condition 2. can be relaxed to have the $C$ depending on $(t, omega).$ Is this correct?
          – White
          Aug 7 at 9:32













          No doubt a weaker condition would suffice but th uniformity makes the pointwise convergence easy to see.
          – John Dawkins
          Aug 7 at 13:20




          No doubt a weaker condition would suffice but th uniformity makes the pointwise convergence easy to see.
          – John Dawkins
          Aug 7 at 13:20












          Thanks a lot, I posted a more general version. Maybe you could also help me out with this one.
          – White
          Aug 7 at 14:16





          Thanks a lot, I posted a more general version. Maybe you could also help me out with this one.
          – White
          Aug 7 at 14:16













          For the more general version, I was missing this piece of information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2875058/…. Using this fact we can use the same proof.
          – White
          Aug 7 at 15:29





          For the more general version, I was missing this piece of information: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2875058/…. Using this fact we can use the same proof.
          – White
          Aug 7 at 15:29













           

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