Stochastic version of the Radon-Nikodým theorem
Clash Royale CLAN TAG#URR8PPP
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Let
- $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space
- $T>0$
- $I:=(0,T]$
- $(mathcal F_t)_tinoverline I$ be a filtration on $(Omega,mathcal A)$
- $mathcal P$ denote the predictable $sigma$-algebra on $Omegatimesoverline I$
- $A:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ be $mathcal Aotimesmathcal B(overline I)$-measurable such that $A_0(omega)=0$ and $A(omega)$ is continuous and of bounded variation for all $omegainOmega$ and $$operatorname Eleft[|A|_Tright]<inftytag1,$$ where $|A(omega)|$ denotes the total variation function of $A(omega)$ for $omegainOmega$
- $B:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ satisfy all assumptions imposed on $A$ and assume that $B(omega)$ is nondecreasing for all $omegainOmega$
Assume $$int_(0,:t]xi:rm dA=0;;;textalmost surely for all tin Itag1$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ with $$int_(0,:t]xi:rm dB=0;;;textalmost surely for all tin I.tag2$$
Now, let $$mu(P):=operatorname Eleft[int1_P:rm dAright]$$ and $$nu(P):=operatorname Eleft[int1_P:rm dBright]$$ for $Pinmathcal P$. By assumption, $mu$ is absolutely continuous with respect to $nu$ and hence the Radon-Nikodým derivative $$alpha:=fracrm dmurm dnu$$ is well-defined and $mathcal P$-measurable with $$operatorname Eleft[int|alpha|:rm dBright]<inftytag3$$ and $$operatorname Eleft[intxi:rm dBright]=intxi:rm dmu=intalphaxi:rm dnutag4$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$.
Let $$M:=A-intalpha:rm dB$$ and note that $$operatorname Eleft[intxi:rm dMright]=0tag5$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$. Why does $(5)$ yield that $M$ is an $mathcal F$-martingale?
probability-theory stochastic-processes martingales stochastic-analysis radon-nikodym
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up vote
1
down vote
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Let
- $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space
- $T>0$
- $I:=(0,T]$
- $(mathcal F_t)_tinoverline I$ be a filtration on $(Omega,mathcal A)$
- $mathcal P$ denote the predictable $sigma$-algebra on $Omegatimesoverline I$
- $A:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ be $mathcal Aotimesmathcal B(overline I)$-measurable such that $A_0(omega)=0$ and $A(omega)$ is continuous and of bounded variation for all $omegainOmega$ and $$operatorname Eleft[|A|_Tright]<inftytag1,$$ where $|A(omega)|$ denotes the total variation function of $A(omega)$ for $omegainOmega$
- $B:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ satisfy all assumptions imposed on $A$ and assume that $B(omega)$ is nondecreasing for all $omegainOmega$
Assume $$int_(0,:t]xi:rm dA=0;;;textalmost surely for all tin Itag1$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ with $$int_(0,:t]xi:rm dB=0;;;textalmost surely for all tin I.tag2$$
Now, let $$mu(P):=operatorname Eleft[int1_P:rm dAright]$$ and $$nu(P):=operatorname Eleft[int1_P:rm dBright]$$ for $Pinmathcal P$. By assumption, $mu$ is absolutely continuous with respect to $nu$ and hence the Radon-Nikodým derivative $$alpha:=fracrm dmurm dnu$$ is well-defined and $mathcal P$-measurable with $$operatorname Eleft[int|alpha|:rm dBright]<inftytag3$$ and $$operatorname Eleft[intxi:rm dBright]=intxi:rm dmu=intalphaxi:rm dnutag4$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$.
Let $$M:=A-intalpha:rm dB$$ and note that $$operatorname Eleft[intxi:rm dMright]=0tag5$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$. Why does $(5)$ yield that $M$ is an $mathcal F$-martingale?
probability-theory stochastic-processes martingales stochastic-analysis radon-nikodym
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
up vote
1
down vote
favorite
Let
- $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space
- $T>0$
- $I:=(0,T]$
- $(mathcal F_t)_tinoverline I$ be a filtration on $(Omega,mathcal A)$
- $mathcal P$ denote the predictable $sigma$-algebra on $Omegatimesoverline I$
- $A:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ be $mathcal Aotimesmathcal B(overline I)$-measurable such that $A_0(omega)=0$ and $A(omega)$ is continuous and of bounded variation for all $omegainOmega$ and $$operatorname Eleft[|A|_Tright]<inftytag1,$$ where $|A(omega)|$ denotes the total variation function of $A(omega)$ for $omegainOmega$
- $B:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ satisfy all assumptions imposed on $A$ and assume that $B(omega)$ is nondecreasing for all $omegainOmega$
Assume $$int_(0,:t]xi:rm dA=0;;;textalmost surely for all tin Itag1$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ with $$int_(0,:t]xi:rm dB=0;;;textalmost surely for all tin I.tag2$$
Now, let $$mu(P):=operatorname Eleft[int1_P:rm dAright]$$ and $$nu(P):=operatorname Eleft[int1_P:rm dBright]$$ for $Pinmathcal P$. By assumption, $mu$ is absolutely continuous with respect to $nu$ and hence the Radon-Nikodým derivative $$alpha:=fracrm dmurm dnu$$ is well-defined and $mathcal P$-measurable with $$operatorname Eleft[int|alpha|:rm dBright]<inftytag3$$ and $$operatorname Eleft[intxi:rm dBright]=intxi:rm dmu=intalphaxi:rm dnutag4$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$.
Let $$M:=A-intalpha:rm dB$$ and note that $$operatorname Eleft[intxi:rm dMright]=0tag5$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$. Why does $(5)$ yield that $M$ is an $mathcal F$-martingale?
probability-theory stochastic-processes martingales stochastic-analysis radon-nikodym
Let
- $(Omega,mathcal A,operatorname P)$ be a probability space
- $T>0$
- $I:=(0,T]$
- $(mathcal F_t)_tinoverline I$ be a filtration on $(Omega,mathcal A)$
- $mathcal P$ denote the predictable $sigma$-algebra on $Omegatimesoverline I$
- $A:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ be $mathcal Aotimesmathcal B(overline I)$-measurable such that $A_0(omega)=0$ and $A(omega)$ is continuous and of bounded variation for all $omegainOmega$ and $$operatorname Eleft[|A|_Tright]<inftytag1,$$ where $|A(omega)|$ denotes the total variation function of $A(omega)$ for $omegainOmega$
- $B:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ satisfy all assumptions imposed on $A$ and assume that $B(omega)$ is nondecreasing for all $omegainOmega$
Assume $$int_(0,:t]xi:rm dA=0;;;textalmost surely for all tin Itag1$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$ with $$int_(0,:t]xi:rm dB=0;;;textalmost surely for all tin I.tag2$$
Now, let $$mu(P):=operatorname Eleft[int1_P:rm dAright]$$ and $$nu(P):=operatorname Eleft[int1_P:rm dBright]$$ for $Pinmathcal P$. By assumption, $mu$ is absolutely continuous with respect to $nu$ and hence the Radon-Nikodým derivative $$alpha:=fracrm dmurm dnu$$ is well-defined and $mathcal P$-measurable with $$operatorname Eleft[int|alpha|:rm dBright]<inftytag3$$ and $$operatorname Eleft[intxi:rm dBright]=intxi:rm dmu=intalphaxi:rm dnutag4$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$.
Let $$M:=A-intalpha:rm dB$$ and note that $$operatorname Eleft[intxi:rm dMright]=0tag5$$ for all bounded nonnegative $mathcal P$-measurable $xi:Omegatimesoverline Itomathbb R$. Why does $(5)$ yield that $M$ is an $mathcal F$-martingale?
probability-theory stochastic-processes martingales stochastic-analysis radon-nikodym
asked Aug 5 at 22:46
0xbadf00d
2,04141028
2,04141028
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1 Answer
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Fix $s leq t$. For fixed $F in mathcalF_s$ the process
$$xi(u,omega) := 1_F(omega) 1_(s,t](u)$$
is bounded, non-negative and progressively measurable. By assumption, this implies that
$$mathbbE left( int xi , dM right)=0$$
which means that
$$mathbbE(1_F (M_t-M_s)) =0.$$
Since $F in mathcalF_s$ is arbitrary, this is equivalent to saying that
$$mathbbE(M_t-M_s mid mathcalF_s)=0,$$
and so $(M_t,mathcalF_t)_t geq 0$ is a martingale.
Oops, that was trivial. Thank you for answer, anyway. I've got a related question. Maybe you can help there too.
â 0xbadf00d
Aug 8 at 20:27
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Fix $s leq t$. For fixed $F in mathcalF_s$ the process
$$xi(u,omega) := 1_F(omega) 1_(s,t](u)$$
is bounded, non-negative and progressively measurable. By assumption, this implies that
$$mathbbE left( int xi , dM right)=0$$
which means that
$$mathbbE(1_F (M_t-M_s)) =0.$$
Since $F in mathcalF_s$ is arbitrary, this is equivalent to saying that
$$mathbbE(M_t-M_s mid mathcalF_s)=0,$$
and so $(M_t,mathcalF_t)_t geq 0$ is a martingale.
Oops, that was trivial. Thank you for answer, anyway. I've got a related question. Maybe you can help there too.
â 0xbadf00d
Aug 8 at 20:27
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Fix $s leq t$. For fixed $F in mathcalF_s$ the process
$$xi(u,omega) := 1_F(omega) 1_(s,t](u)$$
is bounded, non-negative and progressively measurable. By assumption, this implies that
$$mathbbE left( int xi , dM right)=0$$
which means that
$$mathbbE(1_F (M_t-M_s)) =0.$$
Since $F in mathcalF_s$ is arbitrary, this is equivalent to saying that
$$mathbbE(M_t-M_s mid mathcalF_s)=0,$$
and so $(M_t,mathcalF_t)_t geq 0$ is a martingale.
Oops, that was trivial. Thank you for answer, anyway. I've got a related question. Maybe you can help there too.
â 0xbadf00d
Aug 8 at 20:27
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
up vote
1
down vote
accepted
Fix $s leq t$. For fixed $F in mathcalF_s$ the process
$$xi(u,omega) := 1_F(omega) 1_(s,t](u)$$
is bounded, non-negative and progressively measurable. By assumption, this implies that
$$mathbbE left( int xi , dM right)=0$$
which means that
$$mathbbE(1_F (M_t-M_s)) =0.$$
Since $F in mathcalF_s$ is arbitrary, this is equivalent to saying that
$$mathbbE(M_t-M_s mid mathcalF_s)=0,$$
and so $(M_t,mathcalF_t)_t geq 0$ is a martingale.
Fix $s leq t$. For fixed $F in mathcalF_s$ the process
$$xi(u,omega) := 1_F(omega) 1_(s,t](u)$$
is bounded, non-negative and progressively measurable. By assumption, this implies that
$$mathbbE left( int xi , dM right)=0$$
which means that
$$mathbbE(1_F (M_t-M_s)) =0.$$
Since $F in mathcalF_s$ is arbitrary, this is equivalent to saying that
$$mathbbE(M_t-M_s mid mathcalF_s)=0,$$
and so $(M_t,mathcalF_t)_t geq 0$ is a martingale.
answered Aug 7 at 17:56
saz
73k552112
73k552112
Oops, that was trivial. Thank you for answer, anyway. I've got a related question. Maybe you can help there too.
â 0xbadf00d
Aug 8 at 20:27
add a comment |Â
Oops, that was trivial. Thank you for answer, anyway. I've got a related question. Maybe you can help there too.
â 0xbadf00d
Aug 8 at 20:27
Oops, that was trivial. Thank you for answer, anyway. I've got a related question. Maybe you can help there too.
â 0xbadf00d
Aug 8 at 20:27
Oops, that was trivial. Thank you for answer, anyway. I've got a related question. Maybe you can help there too.
â 0xbadf00d
Aug 8 at 20:27
add a comment |Â
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