Homogeneous space and quotient space for spin groups

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We know that
$$
O(n+1)/O(n) simeq SO(n+1)/SO(n) simeq S^n,
$$
based on the result of homogeneous space.



These are in some sense spheres.



If we embed the spin group $Spin(n)$ into $Spin(n+1)$, we may be able to define the quotient space




$$
Spin(n+1)/Spin(n) simeq ?
$$



  • Do we have simpler expressions for the above "manifolds" or "quotient space"?



My Trial/Attempt:
We know that
$$
Spin(2)simeq U(1)simeq SO(2) simeq S^1
$$
$$
Spin(3)simeq SU(2)simeq S^3
$$
$$
Spin(4)simeq SU(2) times SU(2)
$$
$$
Spin(5)simeq Sp(2)
$$
$$
Spin(6)simeq SU(4),
$$
while
$$
Spin(3)/Spin(2) simeq S^3/ S^1 simeq S^2
$$
$$
Spin(4)/Spin(3) simeq (SU(2) times SU(2))/ S^3 simeq (S^3 times S^3 )/ S^3 simeq S^3
$$
Could we obtain the generic formulas for $Spin(n+1)/Spin(n) simeq ?
$







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    up vote
    1
    down vote

    favorite
    1












    We know that
    $$
    O(n+1)/O(n) simeq SO(n+1)/SO(n) simeq S^n,
    $$
    based on the result of homogeneous space.



    These are in some sense spheres.



    If we embed the spin group $Spin(n)$ into $Spin(n+1)$, we may be able to define the quotient space




    $$
    Spin(n+1)/Spin(n) simeq ?
    $$



    • Do we have simpler expressions for the above "manifolds" or "quotient space"?



    My Trial/Attempt:
    We know that
    $$
    Spin(2)simeq U(1)simeq SO(2) simeq S^1
    $$
    $$
    Spin(3)simeq SU(2)simeq S^3
    $$
    $$
    Spin(4)simeq SU(2) times SU(2)
    $$
    $$
    Spin(5)simeq Sp(2)
    $$
    $$
    Spin(6)simeq SU(4),
    $$
    while
    $$
    Spin(3)/Spin(2) simeq S^3/ S^1 simeq S^2
    $$
    $$
    Spin(4)/Spin(3) simeq (SU(2) times SU(2))/ S^3 simeq (S^3 times S^3 )/ S^3 simeq S^3
    $$
    Could we obtain the generic formulas for $Spin(n+1)/Spin(n) simeq ?
    $







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite
      1









      up vote
      1
      down vote

      favorite
      1






      1





      We know that
      $$
      O(n+1)/O(n) simeq SO(n+1)/SO(n) simeq S^n,
      $$
      based on the result of homogeneous space.



      These are in some sense spheres.



      If we embed the spin group $Spin(n)$ into $Spin(n+1)$, we may be able to define the quotient space




      $$
      Spin(n+1)/Spin(n) simeq ?
      $$



      • Do we have simpler expressions for the above "manifolds" or "quotient space"?



      My Trial/Attempt:
      We know that
      $$
      Spin(2)simeq U(1)simeq SO(2) simeq S^1
      $$
      $$
      Spin(3)simeq SU(2)simeq S^3
      $$
      $$
      Spin(4)simeq SU(2) times SU(2)
      $$
      $$
      Spin(5)simeq Sp(2)
      $$
      $$
      Spin(6)simeq SU(4),
      $$
      while
      $$
      Spin(3)/Spin(2) simeq S^3/ S^1 simeq S^2
      $$
      $$
      Spin(4)/Spin(3) simeq (SU(2) times SU(2))/ S^3 simeq (S^3 times S^3 )/ S^3 simeq S^3
      $$
      Could we obtain the generic formulas for $Spin(n+1)/Spin(n) simeq ?
      $







      share|cite|improve this question











      We know that
      $$
      O(n+1)/O(n) simeq SO(n+1)/SO(n) simeq S^n,
      $$
      based on the result of homogeneous space.



      These are in some sense spheres.



      If we embed the spin group $Spin(n)$ into $Spin(n+1)$, we may be able to define the quotient space




      $$
      Spin(n+1)/Spin(n) simeq ?
      $$



      • Do we have simpler expressions for the above "manifolds" or "quotient space"?



      My Trial/Attempt:
      We know that
      $$
      Spin(2)simeq U(1)simeq SO(2) simeq S^1
      $$
      $$
      Spin(3)simeq SU(2)simeq S^3
      $$
      $$
      Spin(4)simeq SU(2) times SU(2)
      $$
      $$
      Spin(5)simeq Sp(2)
      $$
      $$
      Spin(6)simeq SU(4),
      $$
      while
      $$
      Spin(3)/Spin(2) simeq S^3/ S^1 simeq S^2
      $$
      $$
      Spin(4)/Spin(3) simeq (SU(2) times SU(2))/ S^3 simeq (S^3 times S^3 )/ S^3 simeq S^3
      $$
      Could we obtain the generic formulas for $Spin(n+1)/Spin(n) simeq ?
      $









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      asked Aug 6 at 0:41









      wonderich

      1,68821226




      1,68821226




















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          Recall that $SO(n+1)$ acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ with isotropy subgroup $SO(n)$, so $SO(n+1)/SO(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$. Now note that $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ also acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ by first mapping to $SO(n+1)$. The isotropy subgroup is the subgroup of $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ which projects to $SO(n) subset SO(n+1)$, this is precisely $operatornameSpin(n)$. Therefore $operatornameSpin(n+1)/operatornameSpin(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$.



          More generally, suppose $G$ is a compact Lie group which acts smoothly and transitively on a smooth manifold $M$ with isotropy subgroup $H$. If $hatG$ is a compact Lie group and $pi : hatG to G$ is a surjective Lie group homomorphism, then $hatG$ acts smoothly and transitively on $M$ with isotropy subgroup $pi^-1(H)$, so both $G/H$ and $hatG/pi^-1(H)$ are diffeomorphic to $M$.






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          • Thanks, this is really a clean answer. +1.
            – wonderich
            Aug 6 at 16:10










          • I accept your answer
            – wonderich
            Aug 7 at 15:41










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          accepted










          Recall that $SO(n+1)$ acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ with isotropy subgroup $SO(n)$, so $SO(n+1)/SO(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$. Now note that $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ also acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ by first mapping to $SO(n+1)$. The isotropy subgroup is the subgroup of $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ which projects to $SO(n) subset SO(n+1)$, this is precisely $operatornameSpin(n)$. Therefore $operatornameSpin(n+1)/operatornameSpin(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$.



          More generally, suppose $G$ is a compact Lie group which acts smoothly and transitively on a smooth manifold $M$ with isotropy subgroup $H$. If $hatG$ is a compact Lie group and $pi : hatG to G$ is a surjective Lie group homomorphism, then $hatG$ acts smoothly and transitively on $M$ with isotropy subgroup $pi^-1(H)$, so both $G/H$ and $hatG/pi^-1(H)$ are diffeomorphic to $M$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thanks, this is really a clean answer. +1.
            – wonderich
            Aug 6 at 16:10










          • I accept your answer
            – wonderich
            Aug 7 at 15:41














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Recall that $SO(n+1)$ acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ with isotropy subgroup $SO(n)$, so $SO(n+1)/SO(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$. Now note that $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ also acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ by first mapping to $SO(n+1)$. The isotropy subgroup is the subgroup of $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ which projects to $SO(n) subset SO(n+1)$, this is precisely $operatornameSpin(n)$. Therefore $operatornameSpin(n+1)/operatornameSpin(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$.



          More generally, suppose $G$ is a compact Lie group which acts smoothly and transitively on a smooth manifold $M$ with isotropy subgroup $H$. If $hatG$ is a compact Lie group and $pi : hatG to G$ is a surjective Lie group homomorphism, then $hatG$ acts smoothly and transitively on $M$ with isotropy subgroup $pi^-1(H)$, so both $G/H$ and $hatG/pi^-1(H)$ are diffeomorphic to $M$.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • Thanks, this is really a clean answer. +1.
            – wonderich
            Aug 6 at 16:10










          • I accept your answer
            – wonderich
            Aug 7 at 15:41












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Recall that $SO(n+1)$ acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ with isotropy subgroup $SO(n)$, so $SO(n+1)/SO(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$. Now note that $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ also acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ by first mapping to $SO(n+1)$. The isotropy subgroup is the subgroup of $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ which projects to $SO(n) subset SO(n+1)$, this is precisely $operatornameSpin(n)$. Therefore $operatornameSpin(n+1)/operatornameSpin(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$.



          More generally, suppose $G$ is a compact Lie group which acts smoothly and transitively on a smooth manifold $M$ with isotropy subgroup $H$. If $hatG$ is a compact Lie group and $pi : hatG to G$ is a surjective Lie group homomorphism, then $hatG$ acts smoothly and transitively on $M$ with isotropy subgroup $pi^-1(H)$, so both $G/H$ and $hatG/pi^-1(H)$ are diffeomorphic to $M$.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Recall that $SO(n+1)$ acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ with isotropy subgroup $SO(n)$, so $SO(n+1)/SO(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$. Now note that $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ also acts smoothly and transitively on $S^n$ by first mapping to $SO(n+1)$. The isotropy subgroup is the subgroup of $operatornameSpin(n+1)$ which projects to $SO(n) subset SO(n+1)$, this is precisely $operatornameSpin(n)$. Therefore $operatornameSpin(n+1)/operatornameSpin(n)$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n$.



          More generally, suppose $G$ is a compact Lie group which acts smoothly and transitively on a smooth manifold $M$ with isotropy subgroup $H$. If $hatG$ is a compact Lie group and $pi : hatG to G$ is a surjective Lie group homomorphism, then $hatG$ acts smoothly and transitively on $M$ with isotropy subgroup $pi^-1(H)$, so both $G/H$ and $hatG/pi^-1(H)$ are diffeomorphic to $M$.







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          share|cite|improve this answer



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          edited Aug 6 at 15:35


























          answered Aug 6 at 15:10









          Michael Albanese

          61.3k1591290




          61.3k1591290











          • Thanks, this is really a clean answer. +1.
            – wonderich
            Aug 6 at 16:10










          • I accept your answer
            – wonderich
            Aug 7 at 15:41
















          • Thanks, this is really a clean answer. +1.
            – wonderich
            Aug 6 at 16:10










          • I accept your answer
            – wonderich
            Aug 7 at 15:41















          Thanks, this is really a clean answer. +1.
          – wonderich
          Aug 6 at 16:10




          Thanks, this is really a clean answer. +1.
          – wonderich
          Aug 6 at 16:10












          I accept your answer
          – wonderich
          Aug 7 at 15:41




          I accept your answer
          – wonderich
          Aug 7 at 15:41












           

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