Degree $deg(f)$ of a Fibration

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Let $S$ be a surface (so a $2$ dimensional, proper $k$-scheme) and $B$ a curve (" $1$ dim " ).



Consider a finite fibration $f:S to B$ (so we have $mathcalO_B = f_*mathcalO_S $).



My question is how to see that $deg(f)=0$?



Here the definition of degree according to wiki: $$deg(f):= [K(S):K(B)]$$



where $K(S), K(B)$ are function fields of $S$ and $B$.



Seemingly we must have $deg(f)= infty$ since $S$ is a surface, while $B$ a curve by considering the transcendental degrees of function field extension.



Background: Show that $(K_S cdot K_S)=0$ using bundle formula containing pullbacks $f^*(K_B otimes mathcalL)$ for an appropriate invertible sheaf $mathcalL$ and using the fact



$$(f^*mathcalG cdot f^*mathcalG) = deg(f)(mathcalG cdot mathcalG)$$







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  • 1




    There is no reason in general for $(K_Scdot K_S)=0$ without further assumptions. For example, take $S$ to be the blown up of the projective plane at a point. The you have a morphism $f:Sto mathbbP^1$, satisfying your conditions, but $K_S^2=8$.
    – Mohan
    Aug 2 at 22:05











  • @Mohan: Would it work if one consider an elliptic fibration, therefore the fiber of generic point $eta in B$ is elliptic curve $S_eta$ (so with genug $g=1$)?
    – KarlPeter
    Aug 3 at 7:12














up vote
-1
down vote

favorite












Let $S$ be a surface (so a $2$ dimensional, proper $k$-scheme) and $B$ a curve (" $1$ dim " ).



Consider a finite fibration $f:S to B$ (so we have $mathcalO_B = f_*mathcalO_S $).



My question is how to see that $deg(f)=0$?



Here the definition of degree according to wiki: $$deg(f):= [K(S):K(B)]$$



where $K(S), K(B)$ are function fields of $S$ and $B$.



Seemingly we must have $deg(f)= infty$ since $S$ is a surface, while $B$ a curve by considering the transcendental degrees of function field extension.



Background: Show that $(K_S cdot K_S)=0$ using bundle formula containing pullbacks $f^*(K_B otimes mathcalL)$ for an appropriate invertible sheaf $mathcalL$ and using the fact



$$(f^*mathcalG cdot f^*mathcalG) = deg(f)(mathcalG cdot mathcalG)$$







share|cite|improve this question

















  • 1




    There is no reason in general for $(K_Scdot K_S)=0$ without further assumptions. For example, take $S$ to be the blown up of the projective plane at a point. The you have a morphism $f:Sto mathbbP^1$, satisfying your conditions, but $K_S^2=8$.
    – Mohan
    Aug 2 at 22:05











  • @Mohan: Would it work if one consider an elliptic fibration, therefore the fiber of generic point $eta in B$ is elliptic curve $S_eta$ (so with genug $g=1$)?
    – KarlPeter
    Aug 3 at 7:12












up vote
-1
down vote

favorite









up vote
-1
down vote

favorite











Let $S$ be a surface (so a $2$ dimensional, proper $k$-scheme) and $B$ a curve (" $1$ dim " ).



Consider a finite fibration $f:S to B$ (so we have $mathcalO_B = f_*mathcalO_S $).



My question is how to see that $deg(f)=0$?



Here the definition of degree according to wiki: $$deg(f):= [K(S):K(B)]$$



where $K(S), K(B)$ are function fields of $S$ and $B$.



Seemingly we must have $deg(f)= infty$ since $S$ is a surface, while $B$ a curve by considering the transcendental degrees of function field extension.



Background: Show that $(K_S cdot K_S)=0$ using bundle formula containing pullbacks $f^*(K_B otimes mathcalL)$ for an appropriate invertible sheaf $mathcalL$ and using the fact



$$(f^*mathcalG cdot f^*mathcalG) = deg(f)(mathcalG cdot mathcalG)$$







share|cite|improve this question













Let $S$ be a surface (so a $2$ dimensional, proper $k$-scheme) and $B$ a curve (" $1$ dim " ).



Consider a finite fibration $f:S to B$ (so we have $mathcalO_B = f_*mathcalO_S $).



My question is how to see that $deg(f)=0$?



Here the definition of degree according to wiki: $$deg(f):= [K(S):K(B)]$$



where $K(S), K(B)$ are function fields of $S$ and $B$.



Seemingly we must have $deg(f)= infty$ since $S$ is a surface, while $B$ a curve by considering the transcendental degrees of function field extension.



Background: Show that $(K_S cdot K_S)=0$ using bundle formula containing pullbacks $f^*(K_B otimes mathcalL)$ for an appropriate invertible sheaf $mathcalL$ and using the fact



$$(f^*mathcalG cdot f^*mathcalG) = deg(f)(mathcalG cdot mathcalG)$$









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 2 at 19:20
























asked Aug 2 at 19:02









KarlPeter

495313




495313







  • 1




    There is no reason in general for $(K_Scdot K_S)=0$ without further assumptions. For example, take $S$ to be the blown up of the projective plane at a point. The you have a morphism $f:Sto mathbbP^1$, satisfying your conditions, but $K_S^2=8$.
    – Mohan
    Aug 2 at 22:05











  • @Mohan: Would it work if one consider an elliptic fibration, therefore the fiber of generic point $eta in B$ is elliptic curve $S_eta$ (so with genug $g=1$)?
    – KarlPeter
    Aug 3 at 7:12












  • 1




    There is no reason in general for $(K_Scdot K_S)=0$ without further assumptions. For example, take $S$ to be the blown up of the projective plane at a point. The you have a morphism $f:Sto mathbbP^1$, satisfying your conditions, but $K_S^2=8$.
    – Mohan
    Aug 2 at 22:05











  • @Mohan: Would it work if one consider an elliptic fibration, therefore the fiber of generic point $eta in B$ is elliptic curve $S_eta$ (so with genug $g=1$)?
    – KarlPeter
    Aug 3 at 7:12







1




1




There is no reason in general for $(K_Scdot K_S)=0$ without further assumptions. For example, take $S$ to be the blown up of the projective plane at a point. The you have a morphism $f:Sto mathbbP^1$, satisfying your conditions, but $K_S^2=8$.
– Mohan
Aug 2 at 22:05





There is no reason in general for $(K_Scdot K_S)=0$ without further assumptions. For example, take $S$ to be the blown up of the projective plane at a point. The you have a morphism $f:Sto mathbbP^1$, satisfying your conditions, but $K_S^2=8$.
– Mohan
Aug 2 at 22:05













@Mohan: Would it work if one consider an elliptic fibration, therefore the fiber of generic point $eta in B$ is elliptic curve $S_eta$ (so with genug $g=1$)?
– KarlPeter
Aug 3 at 7:12




@Mohan: Would it work if one consider an elliptic fibration, therefore the fiber of generic point $eta in B$ is elliptic curve $S_eta$ (so with genug $g=1$)?
– KarlPeter
Aug 3 at 7:12















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