Domain to define a holomorphic function with non-isolated singularities closed, open, neither?

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I'm studying singularities in complex analysis and came across the following function:

$$f(z):=frac1zcos(frac1z)$$



I already figured out that $f$ has a non-isolated singularity in $0$ and that there are poles in $$z_k:=frac2pi(1+2k)$$ for $kinmathbbZ$, tending towards $0$ for $|k|toinfty$. I am now trying to find out if the domain $$D_f:=mathbbCsetminus(z_kcup0),$$ is closed, open or neither.



I already came up with a proof that $D_f$ cannot be closed because if $zinz_kcup0$, there is no $epsilon>0$ such that $B(z_1,epsilon)subseteq z_kcup0$ due to $z_kle z_1$ for all $kinmathbbZ$.



Can one help me out with the rest?



Thank you in advance.







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  • First, 0 is not a pole but rather a non-isolated singularity...z_k are on the other hand simple poles. Second, why do you think D_f is not open?
    – zokomoko
    2 days ago











  • Thanks, I edited the question. Actually, I am lacking a proof here... Can one proof that it is open?
    – physicist23
    2 days ago














up vote
0
down vote

favorite












I'm studying singularities in complex analysis and came across the following function:

$$f(z):=frac1zcos(frac1z)$$



I already figured out that $f$ has a non-isolated singularity in $0$ and that there are poles in $$z_k:=frac2pi(1+2k)$$ for $kinmathbbZ$, tending towards $0$ for $|k|toinfty$. I am now trying to find out if the domain $$D_f:=mathbbCsetminus(z_kcup0),$$ is closed, open or neither.



I already came up with a proof that $D_f$ cannot be closed because if $zinz_kcup0$, there is no $epsilon>0$ such that $B(z_1,epsilon)subseteq z_kcup0$ due to $z_kle z_1$ for all $kinmathbbZ$.



Can one help me out with the rest?



Thank you in advance.







share|cite|improve this question





















  • First, 0 is not a pole but rather a non-isolated singularity...z_k are on the other hand simple poles. Second, why do you think D_f is not open?
    – zokomoko
    2 days ago











  • Thanks, I edited the question. Actually, I am lacking a proof here... Can one proof that it is open?
    – physicist23
    2 days ago












up vote
0
down vote

favorite









up vote
0
down vote

favorite











I'm studying singularities in complex analysis and came across the following function:

$$f(z):=frac1zcos(frac1z)$$



I already figured out that $f$ has a non-isolated singularity in $0$ and that there are poles in $$z_k:=frac2pi(1+2k)$$ for $kinmathbbZ$, tending towards $0$ for $|k|toinfty$. I am now trying to find out if the domain $$D_f:=mathbbCsetminus(z_kcup0),$$ is closed, open or neither.



I already came up with a proof that $D_f$ cannot be closed because if $zinz_kcup0$, there is no $epsilon>0$ such that $B(z_1,epsilon)subseteq z_kcup0$ due to $z_kle z_1$ for all $kinmathbbZ$.



Can one help me out with the rest?



Thank you in advance.







share|cite|improve this question













I'm studying singularities in complex analysis and came across the following function:

$$f(z):=frac1zcos(frac1z)$$



I already figured out that $f$ has a non-isolated singularity in $0$ and that there are poles in $$z_k:=frac2pi(1+2k)$$ for $kinmathbbZ$, tending towards $0$ for $|k|toinfty$. I am now trying to find out if the domain $$D_f:=mathbbCsetminus(z_kcup0),$$ is closed, open or neither.



I already came up with a proof that $D_f$ cannot be closed because if $zinz_kcup0$, there is no $epsilon>0$ such that $B(z_1,epsilon)subseteq z_kcup0$ due to $z_kle z_1$ for all $kinmathbbZ$.



Can one help me out with the rest?



Thank you in advance.









share|cite|improve this question












share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited 2 days ago
























asked 2 days ago









physicist23

33




33











  • First, 0 is not a pole but rather a non-isolated singularity...z_k are on the other hand simple poles. Second, why do you think D_f is not open?
    – zokomoko
    2 days ago











  • Thanks, I edited the question. Actually, I am lacking a proof here... Can one proof that it is open?
    – physicist23
    2 days ago
















  • First, 0 is not a pole but rather a non-isolated singularity...z_k are on the other hand simple poles. Second, why do you think D_f is not open?
    – zokomoko
    2 days ago











  • Thanks, I edited the question. Actually, I am lacking a proof here... Can one proof that it is open?
    – physicist23
    2 days ago















First, 0 is not a pole but rather a non-isolated singularity...z_k are on the other hand simple poles. Second, why do you think D_f is not open?
– zokomoko
2 days ago





First, 0 is not a pole but rather a non-isolated singularity...z_k are on the other hand simple poles. Second, why do you think D_f is not open?
– zokomoko
2 days ago













Thanks, I edited the question. Actually, I am lacking a proof here... Can one proof that it is open?
– physicist23
2 days ago




Thanks, I edited the question. Actually, I am lacking a proof here... Can one proof that it is open?
– physicist23
2 days ago










1 Answer
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$D_f = Bbb Cbackslash left( left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right right)$ is in fact open.



I believe it is easier to see that $B = left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right$ is closed.



According to this:



Prove that a set is closed iff it contains all its accumulation points



it suffices to check that $B$ contains all of its accumulation points.



Well the set $B$ has only one accumulation point and it's $0$ and it's contained in $B$.



Thus $B$ is closed and $$D_f = Bbb Cbackslash B$$ is open.



Alternatively we can show that the set $B$ is closed by showing that it contains all of its boundary points.



By the definition of a boundary point ($x$ is a boundary points of $B$ if every neighborhood of $x$ contains at least one element in $B$ and at least one element not in $B$) we conclude that every point in $B$ is a boundary point.
Thus $B$ is closed.






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    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes








    1 Answer
    1






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

    votes








    up vote
    0
    down vote



    accepted










    $D_f = Bbb Cbackslash left( left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right right)$ is in fact open.



    I believe it is easier to see that $B = left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right$ is closed.



    According to this:



    Prove that a set is closed iff it contains all its accumulation points



    it suffices to check that $B$ contains all of its accumulation points.



    Well the set $B$ has only one accumulation point and it's $0$ and it's contained in $B$.



    Thus $B$ is closed and $$D_f = Bbb Cbackslash B$$ is open.



    Alternatively we can show that the set $B$ is closed by showing that it contains all of its boundary points.



    By the definition of a boundary point ($x$ is a boundary points of $B$ if every neighborhood of $x$ contains at least one element in $B$ and at least one element not in $B$) we conclude that every point in $B$ is a boundary point.
    Thus $B$ is closed.






    share|cite|improve this answer



























      up vote
      0
      down vote



      accepted










      $D_f = Bbb Cbackslash left( left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right right)$ is in fact open.



      I believe it is easier to see that $B = left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right$ is closed.



      According to this:



      Prove that a set is closed iff it contains all its accumulation points



      it suffices to check that $B$ contains all of its accumulation points.



      Well the set $B$ has only one accumulation point and it's $0$ and it's contained in $B$.



      Thus $B$ is closed and $$D_f = Bbb Cbackslash B$$ is open.



      Alternatively we can show that the set $B$ is closed by showing that it contains all of its boundary points.



      By the definition of a boundary point ($x$ is a boundary points of $B$ if every neighborhood of $x$ contains at least one element in $B$ and at least one element not in $B$) we conclude that every point in $B$ is a boundary point.
      Thus $B$ is closed.






      share|cite|improve this answer

























        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted







        up vote
        0
        down vote



        accepted






        $D_f = Bbb Cbackslash left( left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right right)$ is in fact open.



        I believe it is easier to see that $B = left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right$ is closed.



        According to this:



        Prove that a set is closed iff it contains all its accumulation points



        it suffices to check that $B$ contains all of its accumulation points.



        Well the set $B$ has only one accumulation point and it's $0$ and it's contained in $B$.



        Thus $B$ is closed and $$D_f = Bbb Cbackslash B$$ is open.



        Alternatively we can show that the set $B$ is closed by showing that it contains all of its boundary points.



        By the definition of a boundary point ($x$ is a boundary points of $B$ if every neighborhood of $x$ contains at least one element in $B$ and at least one element not in $B$) we conclude that every point in $B$ is a boundary point.
        Thus $B$ is closed.






        share|cite|improve this answer















        $D_f = Bbb Cbackslash left( left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right right)$ is in fact open.



        I believe it is easier to see that $B = left z_k right_ - infty ^infty cup left 0 right$ is closed.



        According to this:



        Prove that a set is closed iff it contains all its accumulation points



        it suffices to check that $B$ contains all of its accumulation points.



        Well the set $B$ has only one accumulation point and it's $0$ and it's contained in $B$.



        Thus $B$ is closed and $$D_f = Bbb Cbackslash B$$ is open.



        Alternatively we can show that the set $B$ is closed by showing that it contains all of its boundary points.



        By the definition of a boundary point ($x$ is a boundary points of $B$ if every neighborhood of $x$ contains at least one element in $B$ and at least one element not in $B$) we conclude that every point in $B$ is a boundary point.
        Thus $B$ is closed.







        share|cite|improve this answer















        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer








        edited 2 days ago


























        answered 2 days ago









        zokomoko

        305213




        305213






















             

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