Equi-consistency of inaccessible cardinals [duplicate]
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The reason why the existence of inaccessible cardinals cannot be proven in ZFC
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Proving that the existence of strongly inaccessible cardinals is independent from ZFC?
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I have trouble understanding this wiki page, concerning inaccessible cardinals.
First "These statements are strong enough to imply the consistency of ZFC". I guess what they mean by that is if $kappa$ is a strongly inaccessible cardinal, then $V_kappa$ is a model of ZFC, where $V$ is the Von Neumann hierarchy.
Then they argue that a proof in ZFC, assuming ZFC is consistent, of the consistency of ZFC+$kappa$ is impossible. Because it would prove the consistency of ZFC, violating Gödel's incompleteness theorem.
I don't understand this, I imagine a relative consistency proof would rather be a model transformation : given a model of ZFC as input, produce a model of ZFC+$kappa$ as output. Then we could continue producing $V_kappa$ to get another model of ZFC. Where is the contradiction in that ? To me it seems we first assumed a model of ZFC, then produced another one. ZFC didn't produce a model of itself from scratch.
set-theory large-cardinals
marked as duplicate by Asaf Karagila
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This question already has an answer here:
The reason why the existence of inaccessible cardinals cannot be proven in ZFC
3 answers
Proving that the existence of strongly inaccessible cardinals is independent from ZFC?
1 answer
I have trouble understanding this wiki page, concerning inaccessible cardinals.
First "These statements are strong enough to imply the consistency of ZFC". I guess what they mean by that is if $kappa$ is a strongly inaccessible cardinal, then $V_kappa$ is a model of ZFC, where $V$ is the Von Neumann hierarchy.
Then they argue that a proof in ZFC, assuming ZFC is consistent, of the consistency of ZFC+$kappa$ is impossible. Because it would prove the consistency of ZFC, violating Gödel's incompleteness theorem.
I don't understand this, I imagine a relative consistency proof would rather be a model transformation : given a model of ZFC as input, produce a model of ZFC+$kappa$ as output. Then we could continue producing $V_kappa$ to get another model of ZFC. Where is the contradiction in that ? To me it seems we first assumed a model of ZFC, then produced another one. ZFC didn't produce a model of itself from scratch.
set-theory large-cardinals
marked as duplicate by Asaf Karagila
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This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
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up vote
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This question already has an answer here:
The reason why the existence of inaccessible cardinals cannot be proven in ZFC
3 answers
Proving that the existence of strongly inaccessible cardinals is independent from ZFC?
1 answer
I have trouble understanding this wiki page, concerning inaccessible cardinals.
First "These statements are strong enough to imply the consistency of ZFC". I guess what they mean by that is if $kappa$ is a strongly inaccessible cardinal, then $V_kappa$ is a model of ZFC, where $V$ is the Von Neumann hierarchy.
Then they argue that a proof in ZFC, assuming ZFC is consistent, of the consistency of ZFC+$kappa$ is impossible. Because it would prove the consistency of ZFC, violating Gödel's incompleteness theorem.
I don't understand this, I imagine a relative consistency proof would rather be a model transformation : given a model of ZFC as input, produce a model of ZFC+$kappa$ as output. Then we could continue producing $V_kappa$ to get another model of ZFC. Where is the contradiction in that ? To me it seems we first assumed a model of ZFC, then produced another one. ZFC didn't produce a model of itself from scratch.
set-theory large-cardinals
This question already has an answer here:
The reason why the existence of inaccessible cardinals cannot be proven in ZFC
3 answers
Proving that the existence of strongly inaccessible cardinals is independent from ZFC?
1 answer
I have trouble understanding this wiki page, concerning inaccessible cardinals.
First "These statements are strong enough to imply the consistency of ZFC". I guess what they mean by that is if $kappa$ is a strongly inaccessible cardinal, then $V_kappa$ is a model of ZFC, where $V$ is the Von Neumann hierarchy.
Then they argue that a proof in ZFC, assuming ZFC is consistent, of the consistency of ZFC+$kappa$ is impossible. Because it would prove the consistency of ZFC, violating Gödel's incompleteness theorem.
I don't understand this, I imagine a relative consistency proof would rather be a model transformation : given a model of ZFC as input, produce a model of ZFC+$kappa$ as output. Then we could continue producing $V_kappa$ to get another model of ZFC. Where is the contradiction in that ? To me it seems we first assumed a model of ZFC, then produced another one. ZFC didn't produce a model of itself from scratch.
This question already has an answer here:
The reason why the existence of inaccessible cardinals cannot be proven in ZFC
3 answers
Proving that the existence of strongly inaccessible cardinals is independent from ZFC?
1 answer
set-theory large-cardinals
asked 2 days ago


V. Semeria
1586
1586
marked as duplicate by Asaf Karagila
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This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
marked as duplicate by Asaf Karagila
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2 days ago
This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.
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1 Answer
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Apply the incompleteness theorem to $ZFC+exists textan inaccessible $
So simple... sorry I didn't see that myself
– V. Semeria
2 days ago
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
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1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Apply the incompleteness theorem to $ZFC+exists textan inaccessible $
So simple... sorry I didn't see that myself
– V. Semeria
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Apply the incompleteness theorem to $ZFC+exists textan inaccessible $
So simple... sorry I didn't see that myself
– V. Semeria
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
up vote
2
down vote
accepted
Apply the incompleteness theorem to $ZFC+exists textan inaccessible $
Apply the incompleteness theorem to $ZFC+exists textan inaccessible $
answered 2 days ago
Rene Schipperus
31.9k11957
31.9k11957
So simple... sorry I didn't see that myself
– V. Semeria
2 days ago
add a comment |Â
So simple... sorry I didn't see that myself
– V. Semeria
2 days ago
So simple... sorry I didn't see that myself
– V. Semeria
2 days ago
So simple... sorry I didn't see that myself
– V. Semeria
2 days ago
add a comment |Â