$f$ is an entire function, show that $ sum_n=0^infty fraca_nn+1 leq pi int_0^2 pi|f(e^i theta)| ,dtheta. $
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Let $f(z) = displaystyle sum_n=0^infty a_n z^n$ be an entire
function. Show that $$ sum_n=0^infty fracn+1 leq pi
int_0^2 pi|f(e^i theta)| ,dtheta. $$
The Cauchy integral formula gives
$$ a_n = frac12 pi i int_0^2 pi fracf(e^i theta)e^i (n+1) theta i e^i theta , d theta = frac12 pi int_0^2 pi f(e^i theta) e^-i n theta , d theta. $$
Then
$$
beginaligned
sum_n=0^infty fracn+1
&= frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 left|int_0^2 pi f(e^i theta) e^-i n theta , d theta right| \
&leq frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 int_0^2 pi left| f(e^i theta) right| left| e^-i n theta right| , d theta \
&= frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 int_0^2 pi left| f(e^i theta) right| , d theta.
endaligned
$$
It seems that this method doesn't work. Is there any idea to estimate it?
complex-analysis
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up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $f(z) = displaystyle sum_n=0^infty a_n z^n$ be an entire
function. Show that $$ sum_n=0^infty fracn+1 leq pi
int_0^2 pi|f(e^i theta)| ,dtheta. $$
The Cauchy integral formula gives
$$ a_n = frac12 pi i int_0^2 pi fracf(e^i theta)e^i (n+1) theta i e^i theta , d theta = frac12 pi int_0^2 pi f(e^i theta) e^-i n theta , d theta. $$
Then
$$
beginaligned
sum_n=0^infty fracn+1
&= frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 left|int_0^2 pi f(e^i theta) e^-i n theta , d theta right| \
&leq frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 int_0^2 pi left| f(e^i theta) right| left| e^-i n theta right| , d theta \
&= frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 int_0^2 pi left| f(e^i theta) right| , d theta.
endaligned
$$
It seems that this method doesn't work. Is there any idea to estimate it?
complex-analysis
Are you sure that's a $pi$ out in front of the integral and not a $frac1pi$ or even $frac12pi$?
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 3 at 3:29
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
Let $f(z) = displaystyle sum_n=0^infty a_n z^n$ be an entire
function. Show that $$ sum_n=0^infty fracn+1 leq pi
int_0^2 pi|f(e^i theta)| ,dtheta. $$
The Cauchy integral formula gives
$$ a_n = frac12 pi i int_0^2 pi fracf(e^i theta)e^i (n+1) theta i e^i theta , d theta = frac12 pi int_0^2 pi f(e^i theta) e^-i n theta , d theta. $$
Then
$$
beginaligned
sum_n=0^infty fracn+1
&= frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 left|int_0^2 pi f(e^i theta) e^-i n theta , d theta right| \
&leq frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 int_0^2 pi left| f(e^i theta) right| left| e^-i n theta right| , d theta \
&= frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 int_0^2 pi left| f(e^i theta) right| , d theta.
endaligned
$$
It seems that this method doesn't work. Is there any idea to estimate it?
complex-analysis
Let $f(z) = displaystyle sum_n=0^infty a_n z^n$ be an entire
function. Show that $$ sum_n=0^infty fracn+1 leq pi
int_0^2 pi|f(e^i theta)| ,dtheta. $$
The Cauchy integral formula gives
$$ a_n = frac12 pi i int_0^2 pi fracf(e^i theta)e^i (n+1) theta i e^i theta , d theta = frac12 pi int_0^2 pi f(e^i theta) e^-i n theta , d theta. $$
Then
$$
beginaligned
sum_n=0^infty fracn+1
&= frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 left|int_0^2 pi f(e^i theta) e^-i n theta , d theta right| \
&leq frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 int_0^2 pi left| f(e^i theta) right| left| e^-i n theta right| , d theta \
&= frac12 pi sum_n=0^infty frac1n+1 int_0^2 pi left| f(e^i theta) right| , d theta.
endaligned
$$
It seems that this method doesn't work. Is there any idea to estimate it?
complex-analysis
asked Aug 3 at 3:22
Star Chou
36410
36410
Are you sure that's a $pi$ out in front of the integral and not a $frac1pi$ or even $frac12pi$?
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 3 at 3:29
add a comment |Â
Are you sure that's a $pi$ out in front of the integral and not a $frac1pi$ or even $frac12pi$?
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 3 at 3:29
Are you sure that's a $pi$ out in front of the integral and not a $frac1pi$ or even $frac12pi$?
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 3 at 3:29
Are you sure that's a $pi$ out in front of the integral and not a $frac1pi$ or even $frac12pi$?
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 3 at 3:29
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
It is a theorem due to Hardy. See for example:
- Kenneth Hoffman, Banach space of analytic functions, the theorem at page 70
- Peter Duren, Theory of $H^p$ spaces, corollary to theorem 3.15 at page 48
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
It is a theorem due to Hardy. See for example:
- Kenneth Hoffman, Banach space of analytic functions, the theorem at page 70
- Peter Duren, Theory of $H^p$ spaces, corollary to theorem 3.15 at page 48
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
It is a theorem due to Hardy. See for example:
- Kenneth Hoffman, Banach space of analytic functions, the theorem at page 70
- Peter Duren, Theory of $H^p$ spaces, corollary to theorem 3.15 at page 48
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
It is a theorem due to Hardy. See for example:
- Kenneth Hoffman, Banach space of analytic functions, the theorem at page 70
- Peter Duren, Theory of $H^p$ spaces, corollary to theorem 3.15 at page 48
It is a theorem due to Hardy. See for example:
- Kenneth Hoffman, Banach space of analytic functions, the theorem at page 70
- Peter Duren, Theory of $H^p$ spaces, corollary to theorem 3.15 at page 48
answered Aug 3 at 5:28


Bob
1,405522
1,405522
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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Are you sure that's a $pi$ out in front of the integral and not a $frac1pi$ or even $frac12pi$?
– Carl Schildkraut
Aug 3 at 3:29