Under what conditions does $H(Xmid f(Y))=H(Xmid Y)$?
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I have the problem that I cannot solve:
Under what conditions does $H(Xâ£f(Y))=H(Xâ£Y)$?
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$. Are they equal?
This is an exercise in the textbook. There is a solution, but I don't think it's correct (more precisely, it is not satisfactory enough). The provided solution is as below.
Suggested Solution (not satisfactory). If $H(X|g(Y )) = H(X|Y )$, then $H(X)âÂÂH(X|g(Y )) = H(X) â H(X|Y )$, i.e., $I(X; g(Y )) = I(X; Y )$. This is the condition for equality in the data processing inequality. From the derivation of the inequality, we have equality iff $X â g(Y ) â Y$ forms a Markov chain. Hence $H(X|g(Y )) = H(X|Y )$ iff $X â g(Y ) â Y$ . This condition includes many special cases, such as $g$ being one-to-one, and $X$ and $Y$ being independent. However, these two special cases do not exhaust all the possibilities.
probability statistics markov-chains entropy
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I have the problem that I cannot solve:
Under what conditions does $H(Xâ£f(Y))=H(Xâ£Y)$?
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$. Are they equal?
This is an exercise in the textbook. There is a solution, but I don't think it's correct (more precisely, it is not satisfactory enough). The provided solution is as below.
Suggested Solution (not satisfactory). If $H(X|g(Y )) = H(X|Y )$, then $H(X)âÂÂH(X|g(Y )) = H(X) â H(X|Y )$, i.e., $I(X; g(Y )) = I(X; Y )$. This is the condition for equality in the data processing inequality. From the derivation of the inequality, we have equality iff $X â g(Y ) â Y$ forms a Markov chain. Hence $H(X|g(Y )) = H(X|Y )$ iff $X â g(Y ) â Y$ . This condition includes many special cases, such as $g$ being one-to-one, and $X$ and $Y$ being independent. However, these two special cases do not exhaust all the possibilities.
probability statistics markov-chains entropy
"it is not satisfactory enough" Why?
â Clement C.
Jul 30 at 0:35
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 2:11
I would add when $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid f left( Y right) right] $ and $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $. Clearly when $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $ all are equal.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 4:51
@Royi, I don't understand your comment.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 5:32
I said you should extend the question to the cases I wrote above in addition to what you wrote.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 6:04
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
I have the problem that I cannot solve:
Under what conditions does $H(Xâ£f(Y))=H(Xâ£Y)$?
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$. Are they equal?
This is an exercise in the textbook. There is a solution, but I don't think it's correct (more precisely, it is not satisfactory enough). The provided solution is as below.
Suggested Solution (not satisfactory). If $H(X|g(Y )) = H(X|Y )$, then $H(X)âÂÂH(X|g(Y )) = H(X) â H(X|Y )$, i.e., $I(X; g(Y )) = I(X; Y )$. This is the condition for equality in the data processing inequality. From the derivation of the inequality, we have equality iff $X â g(Y ) â Y$ forms a Markov chain. Hence $H(X|g(Y )) = H(X|Y )$ iff $X â g(Y ) â Y$ . This condition includes many special cases, such as $g$ being one-to-one, and $X$ and $Y$ being independent. However, these two special cases do not exhaust all the possibilities.
probability statistics markov-chains entropy
I have the problem that I cannot solve:
Under what conditions does $H(Xâ£f(Y))=H(Xâ£Y)$?
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$. Are they equal?
This is an exercise in the textbook. There is a solution, but I don't think it's correct (more precisely, it is not satisfactory enough). The provided solution is as below.
Suggested Solution (not satisfactory). If $H(X|g(Y )) = H(X|Y )$, then $H(X)âÂÂH(X|g(Y )) = H(X) â H(X|Y )$, i.e., $I(X; g(Y )) = I(X; Y )$. This is the condition for equality in the data processing inequality. From the derivation of the inequality, we have equality iff $X â g(Y ) â Y$ forms a Markov chain. Hence $H(X|g(Y )) = H(X|Y )$ iff $X â g(Y ) â Y$ . This condition includes many special cases, such as $g$ being one-to-one, and $X$ and $Y$ being independent. However, these two special cases do not exhaust all the possibilities.
probability statistics markov-chains entropy
edited Jul 30 at 2:11
asked Jul 30 at 0:14
khahuras
184
184
"it is not satisfactory enough" Why?
â Clement C.
Jul 30 at 0:35
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 2:11
I would add when $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid f left( Y right) right] $ and $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $. Clearly when $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $ all are equal.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 4:51
@Royi, I don't understand your comment.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 5:32
I said you should extend the question to the cases I wrote above in addition to what you wrote.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 6:04
add a comment |Â
"it is not satisfactory enough" Why?
â Clement C.
Jul 30 at 0:35
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 2:11
I would add when $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid f left( Y right) right] $ and $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $. Clearly when $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $ all are equal.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 4:51
@Royi, I don't understand your comment.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 5:32
I said you should extend the question to the cases I wrote above in addition to what you wrote.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 6:04
"it is not satisfactory enough" Why?
â Clement C.
Jul 30 at 0:35
"it is not satisfactory enough" Why?
â Clement C.
Jul 30 at 0:35
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 2:11
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 2:11
I would add when $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid f left( Y right) right] $ and $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $. Clearly when $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $ all are equal.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 4:51
I would add when $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid f left( Y right) right] $ and $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $. Clearly when $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $ all are equal.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 4:51
@Royi, I don't understand your comment.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 5:32
@Royi, I don't understand your comment.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 5:32
I said you should extend the question to the cases I wrote above in addition to what you wrote.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 6:04
I said you should extend the question to the cases I wrote above in addition to what you wrote.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 6:04
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The data processing inequality lemma already provides the complete answer. $I(X;Y)=I(X;g(Y))$ holds if and only if $$tag1Xrightarrow Y rightarrow g(Y)$$ and $$tag2 Xrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow Y.$$
Now note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid yright)tag3,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (1) implies that $g(Y)rightarrow Y rightarrow X$, i.e., $X$ is independent of $g(Y)$, when conditioned on $Y$. Also note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid g(y)right) tag4,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (2) implies $Yrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow X$.
It follows from (3) and (4) that it must hold
$$
pleft(xmid g(y)right) = p(x mid y),
$$
for all valid values of $x$ and $y$. This is the most general condition you seek, which captures the cases of $g$ being one to one and $Y$ independent of $X$.
What if it was extended to under which conditions $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid g left( Y right) right] $?
â Royi
Jul 30 at 17:05
Thanks for your solution @Stelios.
â khahuras
Jul 31 at 4:28
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The data processing inequality lemma already provides the complete answer. $I(X;Y)=I(X;g(Y))$ holds if and only if $$tag1Xrightarrow Y rightarrow g(Y)$$ and $$tag2 Xrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow Y.$$
Now note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid yright)tag3,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (1) implies that $g(Y)rightarrow Y rightarrow X$, i.e., $X$ is independent of $g(Y)$, when conditioned on $Y$. Also note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid g(y)right) tag4,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (2) implies $Yrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow X$.
It follows from (3) and (4) that it must hold
$$
pleft(xmid g(y)right) = p(x mid y),
$$
for all valid values of $x$ and $y$. This is the most general condition you seek, which captures the cases of $g$ being one to one and $Y$ independent of $X$.
What if it was extended to under which conditions $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid g left( Y right) right] $?
â Royi
Jul 30 at 17:05
Thanks for your solution @Stelios.
â khahuras
Jul 31 at 4:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The data processing inequality lemma already provides the complete answer. $I(X;Y)=I(X;g(Y))$ holds if and only if $$tag1Xrightarrow Y rightarrow g(Y)$$ and $$tag2 Xrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow Y.$$
Now note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid yright)tag3,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (1) implies that $g(Y)rightarrow Y rightarrow X$, i.e., $X$ is independent of $g(Y)$, when conditioned on $Y$. Also note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid g(y)right) tag4,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (2) implies $Yrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow X$.
It follows from (3) and (4) that it must hold
$$
pleft(xmid g(y)right) = p(x mid y),
$$
for all valid values of $x$ and $y$. This is the most general condition you seek, which captures the cases of $g$ being one to one and $Y$ independent of $X$.
What if it was extended to under which conditions $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid g left( Y right) right] $?
â Royi
Jul 30 at 17:05
Thanks for your solution @Stelios.
â khahuras
Jul 31 at 4:28
add a comment |Â
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
up vote
3
down vote
accepted
The data processing inequality lemma already provides the complete answer. $I(X;Y)=I(X;g(Y))$ holds if and only if $$tag1Xrightarrow Y rightarrow g(Y)$$ and $$tag2 Xrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow Y.$$
Now note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid yright)tag3,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (1) implies that $g(Y)rightarrow Y rightarrow X$, i.e., $X$ is independent of $g(Y)$, when conditioned on $Y$. Also note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid g(y)right) tag4,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (2) implies $Yrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow X$.
It follows from (3) and (4) that it must hold
$$
pleft(xmid g(y)right) = p(x mid y),
$$
for all valid values of $x$ and $y$. This is the most general condition you seek, which captures the cases of $g$ being one to one and $Y$ independent of $X$.
The data processing inequality lemma already provides the complete answer. $I(X;Y)=I(X;g(Y))$ holds if and only if $$tag1Xrightarrow Y rightarrow g(Y)$$ and $$tag2 Xrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow Y.$$
Now note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid yright)tag3,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (1) implies that $g(Y)rightarrow Y rightarrow X$, i.e., $X$ is independent of $g(Y)$, when conditioned on $Y$. Also note that
$$
beginalign
p(x,g(y),y) &= p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid y, g(y)right)\
&=p(y, g(y))pleft(xmid g(y)right) tag4,
endalign
$$
where the last equality holds since (2) implies $Yrightarrow g(Y) rightarrow X$.
It follows from (3) and (4) that it must hold
$$
pleft(xmid g(y)right) = p(x mid y),
$$
for all valid values of $x$ and $y$. This is the most general condition you seek, which captures the cases of $g$ being one to one and $Y$ independent of $X$.
edited Jul 30 at 15:40
answered Jul 30 at 15:30
Stelios
2,051278
2,051278
What if it was extended to under which conditions $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid g left( Y right) right] $?
â Royi
Jul 30 at 17:05
Thanks for your solution @Stelios.
â khahuras
Jul 31 at 4:28
add a comment |Â
What if it was extended to under which conditions $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid g left( Y right) right] $?
â Royi
Jul 30 at 17:05
Thanks for your solution @Stelios.
â khahuras
Jul 31 at 4:28
What if it was extended to under which conditions $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid g left( Y right) right] $?
â Royi
Jul 30 at 17:05
What if it was extended to under which conditions $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid g left( Y right) right] $?
â Royi
Jul 30 at 17:05
Thanks for your solution @Stelios.
â khahuras
Jul 31 at 4:28
Thanks for your solution @Stelios.
â khahuras
Jul 31 at 4:28
add a comment |Â
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"it is not satisfactory enough" Why?
â Clement C.
Jul 30 at 0:35
I would like to draw a result about the relation between $p_X(cdot | g(Y))$ and $p_X(cdot | Y)$.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 2:11
I would add when $ mathbbE left[ X mid Y right] = mathbbE left[ X mid f left( Y right) right] $ and $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $. Clearly when $ p_X left( cdot mid Y right) = p_X left( cdot mid f left( Y right) right) $ all are equal.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 4:51
@Royi, I don't understand your comment.
â khahuras
Jul 30 at 5:32
I said you should extend the question to the cases I wrote above in addition to what you wrote.
â Royi
Jul 30 at 6:04