Basis for a subspace Proof

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If $,v_1,v_2,$ is a basis for a subspace $V$ show that $,v_1+v_2,v_1−v_2,$ is also a basis for $V$ .



I know that we must have to prove that $v_1+v_2$ and $v_1-v_2$ are linearly independent and they also span $V$ because that is a definition for a basis but am unsure how to go about this.







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    If $,v_1,v_2,$ is a basis for a subspace $V$ show that $,v_1+v_2,v_1−v_2,$ is also a basis for $V$ .



    I know that we must have to prove that $v_1+v_2$ and $v_1-v_2$ are linearly independent and they also span $V$ because that is a definition for a basis but am unsure how to go about this.







    share|cite|improve this question























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      If $,v_1,v_2,$ is a basis for a subspace $V$ show that $,v_1+v_2,v_1−v_2,$ is also a basis for $V$ .



      I know that we must have to prove that $v_1+v_2$ and $v_1-v_2$ are linearly independent and they also span $V$ because that is a definition for a basis but am unsure how to go about this.







      share|cite|improve this question













      If $,v_1,v_2,$ is a basis for a subspace $V$ show that $,v_1+v_2,v_1−v_2,$ is also a basis for $V$ .



      I know that we must have to prove that $v_1+v_2$ and $v_1-v_2$ are linearly independent and they also span $V$ because that is a definition for a basis but am unsure how to go about this.









      share|cite|improve this question












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      edited Jul 30 at 8:58









      Babelfish

      408112




      408112









      asked Jul 30 at 7:57









      J-Dorman

      555




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          3 Answers
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          Let $t(v_1+v_2)+s(v_1-v_2)=0$ , hence $(t+s)v_1+(t-s)v_2=0$. Since $v_1,v_2$ is linearly independent, we get $t+s=0$ and $t-s=0$, hence $t=s=0$.



          This shows that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ is linearly independent.



          Since $dim V=2$, we have that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ span $V$.






          share|cite|improve this answer





















          • how does that fact that dim V=2 prove that they span V? can you elaborate?
            – J-Dorman
            Jul 30 at 8:28










          • There are several charakterisations for basis. One is, that a basis for $V$ is a maximal linear independent set. The set $, v_1+v_2,$ is linear independent. Every linear independet of $V$ set can be enlarged to a basis of $V$. So there is a basis of size $geq 2$ where those two vectors are a subset. But every basis of $V$ has the same cardinality, which is $2$. So $, v_1+v_2,$ already was a basis.
            – Babelfish
            Jul 30 at 8:51











          • @Babelfish I don't understand
            – J-Dorman
            Jul 30 at 9:23










          • @J-Dorman Which part do you not understand? It is hard to estimate your linear algebra knowledge
            – Babelfish
            Jul 30 at 9:28

















          up vote
          0
          down vote













          To show LI, you need to show that the only linear combination of the vectors $v_1+v_2$ and $v_1-v_2$ that gives the zero vector is the zero combination, i.e. the following equation has ONLY the trivial solution.
          $$c_1(v_1+v_2)+c_2(v_1-v_2)=0.$$
          This amounts to
          $$(c_1+c_2)v_1+(c_1-c_2)v_2=0.$$
          Now $v_1, v_2$ are LI, therefore these coefficients must be $0$. Thus we have
          beginalign*
          c_1+c_2 & = 0\
          c_1-c_2 & = 0.
          endalign*
          It is easy to see that it has only the trivial (zero solution). Hence the new set is LI.



          Showing span is easy or you can use the fact that the given subspace is 2D.






          share|cite|improve this answer




























            up vote
            0
            down vote













            Here are several possible arguments:



            Set $w_1=v_1+v_2$, $;w_2=v_1-v_2$.



            • As, by hypothesis, $V$ has dimension $2$, it is enough to prove either that $w_1$ and $w_2$ are linearly independent (which amounts to showing a linear system has only the trivial solution), or that $v_1, v_2in langle w_1,w_2rangle$.

            $qquad$This second way is easy: form the equations defining $w_1$ and $w_2$, you deduce readily
            $$v_1=tfrac12(w_1+w_2),quad v_2=tfrac12(w_1-w_2).$$



            • If you know about determinants, observe the column matrices $;beginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix$ and $;beginbmatrixw_1newline w_2endbmatrix$ are linked by the relation
              $$beginbmatrixw_1\ w_2endbmatrix=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrixbeginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix,$$
              and the matrix $;A=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrix$ is invertible since $det A=-2$, so it maps a basis onto a basis.





            share|cite|improve this answer





















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              3 Answers
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              3 Answers
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              active

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              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Let $t(v_1+v_2)+s(v_1-v_2)=0$ , hence $(t+s)v_1+(t-s)v_2=0$. Since $v_1,v_2$ is linearly independent, we get $t+s=0$ and $t-s=0$, hence $t=s=0$.



              This shows that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ is linearly independent.



              Since $dim V=2$, we have that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ span $V$.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • how does that fact that dim V=2 prove that they span V? can you elaborate?
                – J-Dorman
                Jul 30 at 8:28










              • There are several charakterisations for basis. One is, that a basis for $V$ is a maximal linear independent set. The set $, v_1+v_2,$ is linear independent. Every linear independet of $V$ set can be enlarged to a basis of $V$. So there is a basis of size $geq 2$ where those two vectors are a subset. But every basis of $V$ has the same cardinality, which is $2$. So $, v_1+v_2,$ already was a basis.
                – Babelfish
                Jul 30 at 8:51











              • @Babelfish I don't understand
                – J-Dorman
                Jul 30 at 9:23










              • @J-Dorman Which part do you not understand? It is hard to estimate your linear algebra knowledge
                – Babelfish
                Jul 30 at 9:28














              up vote
              2
              down vote













              Let $t(v_1+v_2)+s(v_1-v_2)=0$ , hence $(t+s)v_1+(t-s)v_2=0$. Since $v_1,v_2$ is linearly independent, we get $t+s=0$ and $t-s=0$, hence $t=s=0$.



              This shows that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ is linearly independent.



              Since $dim V=2$, we have that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ span $V$.






              share|cite|improve this answer





















              • how does that fact that dim V=2 prove that they span V? can you elaborate?
                – J-Dorman
                Jul 30 at 8:28










              • There are several charakterisations for basis. One is, that a basis for $V$ is a maximal linear independent set. The set $, v_1+v_2,$ is linear independent. Every linear independet of $V$ set can be enlarged to a basis of $V$. So there is a basis of size $geq 2$ where those two vectors are a subset. But every basis of $V$ has the same cardinality, which is $2$. So $, v_1+v_2,$ already was a basis.
                – Babelfish
                Jul 30 at 8:51











              • @Babelfish I don't understand
                – J-Dorman
                Jul 30 at 9:23










              • @J-Dorman Which part do you not understand? It is hard to estimate your linear algebra knowledge
                – Babelfish
                Jul 30 at 9:28












              up vote
              2
              down vote










              up vote
              2
              down vote









              Let $t(v_1+v_2)+s(v_1-v_2)=0$ , hence $(t+s)v_1+(t-s)v_2=0$. Since $v_1,v_2$ is linearly independent, we get $t+s=0$ and $t-s=0$, hence $t=s=0$.



              This shows that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ is linearly independent.



              Since $dim V=2$, we have that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ span $V$.






              share|cite|improve this answer













              Let $t(v_1+v_2)+s(v_1-v_2)=0$ , hence $(t+s)v_1+(t-s)v_2=0$. Since $v_1,v_2$ is linearly independent, we get $t+s=0$ and $t-s=0$, hence $t=s=0$.



              This shows that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ is linearly independent.



              Since $dim V=2$, we have that $v_1+v_2,v_1-v_2$ span $V$.







              share|cite|improve this answer













              share|cite|improve this answer



              share|cite|improve this answer











              answered Jul 30 at 8:03









              Fred

              37k1237




              37k1237











              • how does that fact that dim V=2 prove that they span V? can you elaborate?
                – J-Dorman
                Jul 30 at 8:28










              • There are several charakterisations for basis. One is, that a basis for $V$ is a maximal linear independent set. The set $, v_1+v_2,$ is linear independent. Every linear independet of $V$ set can be enlarged to a basis of $V$. So there is a basis of size $geq 2$ where those two vectors are a subset. But every basis of $V$ has the same cardinality, which is $2$. So $, v_1+v_2,$ already was a basis.
                – Babelfish
                Jul 30 at 8:51











              • @Babelfish I don't understand
                – J-Dorman
                Jul 30 at 9:23










              • @J-Dorman Which part do you not understand? It is hard to estimate your linear algebra knowledge
                – Babelfish
                Jul 30 at 9:28
















              • how does that fact that dim V=2 prove that they span V? can you elaborate?
                – J-Dorman
                Jul 30 at 8:28










              • There are several charakterisations for basis. One is, that a basis for $V$ is a maximal linear independent set. The set $, v_1+v_2,$ is linear independent. Every linear independet of $V$ set can be enlarged to a basis of $V$. So there is a basis of size $geq 2$ where those two vectors are a subset. But every basis of $V$ has the same cardinality, which is $2$. So $, v_1+v_2,$ already was a basis.
                – Babelfish
                Jul 30 at 8:51











              • @Babelfish I don't understand
                – J-Dorman
                Jul 30 at 9:23










              • @J-Dorman Which part do you not understand? It is hard to estimate your linear algebra knowledge
                – Babelfish
                Jul 30 at 9:28















              how does that fact that dim V=2 prove that they span V? can you elaborate?
              – J-Dorman
              Jul 30 at 8:28




              how does that fact that dim V=2 prove that they span V? can you elaborate?
              – J-Dorman
              Jul 30 at 8:28












              There are several charakterisations for basis. One is, that a basis for $V$ is a maximal linear independent set. The set $, v_1+v_2,$ is linear independent. Every linear independet of $V$ set can be enlarged to a basis of $V$. So there is a basis of size $geq 2$ where those two vectors are a subset. But every basis of $V$ has the same cardinality, which is $2$. So $, v_1+v_2,$ already was a basis.
              – Babelfish
              Jul 30 at 8:51





              There are several charakterisations for basis. One is, that a basis for $V$ is a maximal linear independent set. The set $, v_1+v_2,$ is linear independent. Every linear independet of $V$ set can be enlarged to a basis of $V$. So there is a basis of size $geq 2$ where those two vectors are a subset. But every basis of $V$ has the same cardinality, which is $2$. So $, v_1+v_2,$ already was a basis.
              – Babelfish
              Jul 30 at 8:51













              @Babelfish I don't understand
              – J-Dorman
              Jul 30 at 9:23




              @Babelfish I don't understand
              – J-Dorman
              Jul 30 at 9:23












              @J-Dorman Which part do you not understand? It is hard to estimate your linear algebra knowledge
              – Babelfish
              Jul 30 at 9:28




              @J-Dorman Which part do you not understand? It is hard to estimate your linear algebra knowledge
              – Babelfish
              Jul 30 at 9:28










              up vote
              0
              down vote













              To show LI, you need to show that the only linear combination of the vectors $v_1+v_2$ and $v_1-v_2$ that gives the zero vector is the zero combination, i.e. the following equation has ONLY the trivial solution.
              $$c_1(v_1+v_2)+c_2(v_1-v_2)=0.$$
              This amounts to
              $$(c_1+c_2)v_1+(c_1-c_2)v_2=0.$$
              Now $v_1, v_2$ are LI, therefore these coefficients must be $0$. Thus we have
              beginalign*
              c_1+c_2 & = 0\
              c_1-c_2 & = 0.
              endalign*
              It is easy to see that it has only the trivial (zero solution). Hence the new set is LI.



              Showing span is easy or you can use the fact that the given subspace is 2D.






              share|cite|improve this answer

























                up vote
                0
                down vote













                To show LI, you need to show that the only linear combination of the vectors $v_1+v_2$ and $v_1-v_2$ that gives the zero vector is the zero combination, i.e. the following equation has ONLY the trivial solution.
                $$c_1(v_1+v_2)+c_2(v_1-v_2)=0.$$
                This amounts to
                $$(c_1+c_2)v_1+(c_1-c_2)v_2=0.$$
                Now $v_1, v_2$ are LI, therefore these coefficients must be $0$. Thus we have
                beginalign*
                c_1+c_2 & = 0\
                c_1-c_2 & = 0.
                endalign*
                It is easy to see that it has only the trivial (zero solution). Hence the new set is LI.



                Showing span is easy or you can use the fact that the given subspace is 2D.






                share|cite|improve this answer























                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  0
                  down vote









                  To show LI, you need to show that the only linear combination of the vectors $v_1+v_2$ and $v_1-v_2$ that gives the zero vector is the zero combination, i.e. the following equation has ONLY the trivial solution.
                  $$c_1(v_1+v_2)+c_2(v_1-v_2)=0.$$
                  This amounts to
                  $$(c_1+c_2)v_1+(c_1-c_2)v_2=0.$$
                  Now $v_1, v_2$ are LI, therefore these coefficients must be $0$. Thus we have
                  beginalign*
                  c_1+c_2 & = 0\
                  c_1-c_2 & = 0.
                  endalign*
                  It is easy to see that it has only the trivial (zero solution). Hence the new set is LI.



                  Showing span is easy or you can use the fact that the given subspace is 2D.






                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  To show LI, you need to show that the only linear combination of the vectors $v_1+v_2$ and $v_1-v_2$ that gives the zero vector is the zero combination, i.e. the following equation has ONLY the trivial solution.
                  $$c_1(v_1+v_2)+c_2(v_1-v_2)=0.$$
                  This amounts to
                  $$(c_1+c_2)v_1+(c_1-c_2)v_2=0.$$
                  Now $v_1, v_2$ are LI, therefore these coefficients must be $0$. Thus we have
                  beginalign*
                  c_1+c_2 & = 0\
                  c_1-c_2 & = 0.
                  endalign*
                  It is easy to see that it has only the trivial (zero solution). Hence the new set is LI.



                  Showing span is easy or you can use the fact that the given subspace is 2D.







                  share|cite|improve this answer













                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer











                  answered Jul 30 at 8:06









                  Anurag A

                  22.2k12243




                  22.2k12243




















                      up vote
                      0
                      down vote













                      Here are several possible arguments:



                      Set $w_1=v_1+v_2$, $;w_2=v_1-v_2$.



                      • As, by hypothesis, $V$ has dimension $2$, it is enough to prove either that $w_1$ and $w_2$ are linearly independent (which amounts to showing a linear system has only the trivial solution), or that $v_1, v_2in langle w_1,w_2rangle$.

                      $qquad$This second way is easy: form the equations defining $w_1$ and $w_2$, you deduce readily
                      $$v_1=tfrac12(w_1+w_2),quad v_2=tfrac12(w_1-w_2).$$



                      • If you know about determinants, observe the column matrices $;beginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix$ and $;beginbmatrixw_1newline w_2endbmatrix$ are linked by the relation
                        $$beginbmatrixw_1\ w_2endbmatrix=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrixbeginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix,$$
                        and the matrix $;A=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrix$ is invertible since $det A=-2$, so it maps a basis onto a basis.





                      share|cite|improve this answer

























                        up vote
                        0
                        down vote













                        Here are several possible arguments:



                        Set $w_1=v_1+v_2$, $;w_2=v_1-v_2$.



                        • As, by hypothesis, $V$ has dimension $2$, it is enough to prove either that $w_1$ and $w_2$ are linearly independent (which amounts to showing a linear system has only the trivial solution), or that $v_1, v_2in langle w_1,w_2rangle$.

                        $qquad$This second way is easy: form the equations defining $w_1$ and $w_2$, you deduce readily
                        $$v_1=tfrac12(w_1+w_2),quad v_2=tfrac12(w_1-w_2).$$



                        • If you know about determinants, observe the column matrices $;beginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix$ and $;beginbmatrixw_1newline w_2endbmatrix$ are linked by the relation
                          $$beginbmatrixw_1\ w_2endbmatrix=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrixbeginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix,$$
                          and the matrix $;A=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrix$ is invertible since $det A=-2$, so it maps a basis onto a basis.





                        share|cite|improve this answer























                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote










                          up vote
                          0
                          down vote









                          Here are several possible arguments:



                          Set $w_1=v_1+v_2$, $;w_2=v_1-v_2$.



                          • As, by hypothesis, $V$ has dimension $2$, it is enough to prove either that $w_1$ and $w_2$ are linearly independent (which amounts to showing a linear system has only the trivial solution), or that $v_1, v_2in langle w_1,w_2rangle$.

                          $qquad$This second way is easy: form the equations defining $w_1$ and $w_2$, you deduce readily
                          $$v_1=tfrac12(w_1+w_2),quad v_2=tfrac12(w_1-w_2).$$



                          • If you know about determinants, observe the column matrices $;beginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix$ and $;beginbmatrixw_1newline w_2endbmatrix$ are linked by the relation
                            $$beginbmatrixw_1\ w_2endbmatrix=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrixbeginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix,$$
                            and the matrix $;A=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrix$ is invertible since $det A=-2$, so it maps a basis onto a basis.





                          share|cite|improve this answer













                          Here are several possible arguments:



                          Set $w_1=v_1+v_2$, $;w_2=v_1-v_2$.



                          • As, by hypothesis, $V$ has dimension $2$, it is enough to prove either that $w_1$ and $w_2$ are linearly independent (which amounts to showing a linear system has only the trivial solution), or that $v_1, v_2in langle w_1,w_2rangle$.

                          $qquad$This second way is easy: form the equations defining $w_1$ and $w_2$, you deduce readily
                          $$v_1=tfrac12(w_1+w_2),quad v_2=tfrac12(w_1-w_2).$$



                          • If you know about determinants, observe the column matrices $;beginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix$ and $;beginbmatrixw_1newline w_2endbmatrix$ are linked by the relation
                            $$beginbmatrixw_1\ w_2endbmatrix=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrixbeginbmatrixv_1newline v_2endbmatrix,$$
                            and the matrix $;A=beginbmatrix1&phantom-1\ 1&-1endbmatrix$ is invertible since $det A=-2$, so it maps a basis onto a basis.






                          share|cite|improve this answer













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                          answered Jul 30 at 8:39









                          Bernard

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