Use of Arzela-Ascoli theorem to ensure that there is a subsequence of a sequence of functions that converges to an infinitely differentiable function.

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I'm trying understand how to prove this result. I read the answer given on the post, but there are three points of the answer that I didn't understand:



  1. Why $f'_n_k_i rightarrow f'?$ I know that $f'_n_k_i rightarrow g$ for some function $g$ by Arzela-Ascoli's theorem, but how exactly can I ensure that $g = f'?$



  2. How ensure that exists $f'?$ Because the answer only ensure that $f$ is continuous and I don't think that Mean Value Theorem can be ensure that $f in mathcalC^1$.



    1. Why is necessary to use the Cantor's diagonal argument? As the author of the answer said, is the process of choosing subsequences no longer enough to ensure the function's differentiability?


Thanks in advance!







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    up vote
    0
    down vote

    favorite












    I'm trying understand how to prove this result. I read the answer given on the post, but there are three points of the answer that I didn't understand:



    1. Why $f'_n_k_i rightarrow f'?$ I know that $f'_n_k_i rightarrow g$ for some function $g$ by Arzela-Ascoli's theorem, but how exactly can I ensure that $g = f'?$



    2. How ensure that exists $f'?$ Because the answer only ensure that $f$ is continuous and I don't think that Mean Value Theorem can be ensure that $f in mathcalC^1$.



      1. Why is necessary to use the Cantor's diagonal argument? As the author of the answer said, is the process of choosing subsequences no longer enough to ensure the function's differentiability?


    Thanks in advance!







    share|cite|improve this question





















      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite









      up vote
      0
      down vote

      favorite











      I'm trying understand how to prove this result. I read the answer given on the post, but there are three points of the answer that I didn't understand:



      1. Why $f'_n_k_i rightarrow f'?$ I know that $f'_n_k_i rightarrow g$ for some function $g$ by Arzela-Ascoli's theorem, but how exactly can I ensure that $g = f'?$



      2. How ensure that exists $f'?$ Because the answer only ensure that $f$ is continuous and I don't think that Mean Value Theorem can be ensure that $f in mathcalC^1$.



        1. Why is necessary to use the Cantor's diagonal argument? As the author of the answer said, is the process of choosing subsequences no longer enough to ensure the function's differentiability?


      Thanks in advance!







      share|cite|improve this question











      I'm trying understand how to prove this result. I read the answer given on the post, but there are three points of the answer that I didn't understand:



      1. Why $f'_n_k_i rightarrow f'?$ I know that $f'_n_k_i rightarrow g$ for some function $g$ by Arzela-Ascoli's theorem, but how exactly can I ensure that $g = f'?$



      2. How ensure that exists $f'?$ Because the answer only ensure that $f$ is continuous and I don't think that Mean Value Theorem can be ensure that $f in mathcalC^1$.



        1. Why is necessary to use the Cantor's diagonal argument? As the author of the answer said, is the process of choosing subsequences no longer enough to ensure the function's differentiability?


      Thanks in advance!









      share|cite|improve this question










      share|cite|improve this question




      share|cite|improve this question









      asked Jul 30 at 1:38









      George

      659512




      659512




















          1 Answer
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          Suppose $f_n to f$ uniformly and $f_n' to g$ uniformly. Then $f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)=int_x_0^x f_n'(t) , dt$. Take limits to get $f(x)-f(x_0)=int_x_0^x g(t), dt$. This implies that $f$ is differentiable and $f'=g$. Repeated use of this theorem answers all your questions.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I understand how this answer my first two questions, but how this answer the third?
            – George
            Jul 30 at 13:27










          Your Answer




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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

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          1 Answer
          1






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes








          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Suppose $f_n to f$ uniformly and $f_n' to g$ uniformly. Then $f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)=int_x_0^x f_n'(t) , dt$. Take limits to get $f(x)-f(x_0)=int_x_0^x g(t), dt$. This implies that $f$ is differentiable and $f'=g$. Repeated use of this theorem answers all your questions.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I understand how this answer my first two questions, but how this answer the third?
            – George
            Jul 30 at 13:27














          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted










          Suppose $f_n to f$ uniformly and $f_n' to g$ uniformly. Then $f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)=int_x_0^x f_n'(t) , dt$. Take limits to get $f(x)-f(x_0)=int_x_0^x g(t), dt$. This implies that $f$ is differentiable and $f'=g$. Repeated use of this theorem answers all your questions.






          share|cite|improve this answer























          • I understand how this answer my first two questions, but how this answer the third?
            – George
            Jul 30 at 13:27












          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted







          up vote
          2
          down vote



          accepted






          Suppose $f_n to f$ uniformly and $f_n' to g$ uniformly. Then $f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)=int_x_0^x f_n'(t) , dt$. Take limits to get $f(x)-f(x_0)=int_x_0^x g(t), dt$. This implies that $f$ is differentiable and $f'=g$. Repeated use of this theorem answers all your questions.






          share|cite|improve this answer















          Suppose $f_n to f$ uniformly and $f_n' to g$ uniformly. Then $f_n(x)-f_n(x_0)=int_x_0^x f_n'(t) , dt$. Take limits to get $f(x)-f(x_0)=int_x_0^x g(t), dt$. This implies that $f$ is differentiable and $f'=g$. Repeated use of this theorem answers all your questions.







          share|cite|improve this answer















          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Jul 30 at 8:40


























          answered Jul 30 at 6:39









          Kavi Rama Murthy

          19.7k2829




          19.7k2829











          • I understand how this answer my first two questions, but how this answer the third?
            – George
            Jul 30 at 13:27
















          • I understand how this answer my first two questions, but how this answer the third?
            – George
            Jul 30 at 13:27















          I understand how this answer my first two questions, but how this answer the third?
          – George
          Jul 30 at 13:27




          I understand how this answer my first two questions, but how this answer the third?
          – George
          Jul 30 at 13:27












           

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